- Aug 21, 2007
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I've never taken a course in anything about the constitution, but I'm going to go with what I assume is common sense. There are 1 of 2 options.
1. You can interpret it strictly.
2. You can interpret it according to what you think the intent of the wording was, and with an aim to help it conform to changes brought about by modernity.
On strict interpretation, I can think of some problems. It lends itself to a paralyzing effect on any legislation that doesn't find it's explicit justification somewhere within the constitution. As much as I would like to say that's just fine with me, I'm willing to concede that there are times when the government must be able to act.
On the second interpretation, as I'm sure most of you could guess, I have a much greater objection. To the extent that the judiciary is able to interpret "meaning" and "intent" into a document, it is able to essentially negate two things: 1.) the binding nature of the document, and 2.) the idea that there ever needs to be a constitutional amendment. This is compounded by an excessive reliance on precedent. (With respect to reliance on precedent, I have a vague recollection that the principal difference between common law and civil law is that one relies on precedent, the other on a code. Can't remember.)
Given the two options, assuming there's no middle ground, I choose the strict interpretation.
That's a general description of my position. Gimme yours.
1. You can interpret it strictly.
2. You can interpret it according to what you think the intent of the wording was, and with an aim to help it conform to changes brought about by modernity.
On strict interpretation, I can think of some problems. It lends itself to a paralyzing effect on any legislation that doesn't find it's explicit justification somewhere within the constitution. As much as I would like to say that's just fine with me, I'm willing to concede that there are times when the government must be able to act.
On the second interpretation, as I'm sure most of you could guess, I have a much greater objection. To the extent that the judiciary is able to interpret "meaning" and "intent" into a document, it is able to essentially negate two things: 1.) the binding nature of the document, and 2.) the idea that there ever needs to be a constitutional amendment. This is compounded by an excessive reliance on precedent. (With respect to reliance on precedent, I have a vague recollection that the principal difference between common law and civil law is that one relies on precedent, the other on a code. Can't remember.)
Given the two options, assuming there's no middle ground, I choose the strict interpretation.
That's a general description of my position. Gimme yours.
