Originally posted by: Electric Amish
	
	
		
		
			Originally posted by: Vic
The proper bank underwriting calculation is hourly wage * 40 * 50 = annual income / 12 = monthly income
For example: at $20 per hour -- $20 * 40 * 50 = $40,000 / 12 = $3,333.33
		
		
	 
So they bust you for 2 weeks of pay??
		
 
		
	 
That calculation is used if only the hourly wage is known (which would be uncommon but could happen say in the event of a recent college graduate).  If vacation pay (the extra 2 weeks) is known and is considered "likely to continue", then it is included.  If the customer is on a monthly salary, then they use that.  If they're like me and on straight commission, then they use the year-to-date average against last year's W-2's and tax returns.
As most people get overtime or vacation pay, the usual way is simply to use the year-to-date average then average that against last year's W-2's.
For example: a customer gives me a paystub dated 10/15 showing a year-to-date gross of $31,666.64 and a 2002 W-2 showing $36,000 in box 3 (let's say they got a raise from $18/hour the beginning of the year).  I divide that by 9.5 (number of months up until that pay date) which gets me $3,333.33 as a year-to-date monthly average, then I take their last year's YTD monthly average of $3,000, add the 2, divide by 2, and the income used for qualifying is $3,166.67.
That is standard Fannie/Freddie guidelines for wage-earners.  Any questions? 
