Amusedone -
"Because there is no definable line, and the bar has no authority to test patrons. Where is the line, DA? Had the patron had 4 beers, and was legally drunk, should the bar be held liable? Where is that line drawn? Is the bar expected to rely solely on feelings? Are they to stop people who only "look or act drunk?" Or are they to stop people who test drunk? When I was in the army, I knew more than my fair share of guys who could down a case of beer in an evening, and not be overtly drunk. So just where is that line, DA?"
Due diligence is the standard. Here there was not due diligence by the bar in question, serving 23 beverages to a single, UNDERAGED customer. Serving that many beverages to a single patron is negligence, regardless of whether he served in teh military and he could "handle it." You are the one muddying the water here, with the 4 beer question - negligence is a question of fact for a jury to answer. Juries vary, just like the idiots with keyboards here on ATOT. What is reasonable to one, is unreasonable to another. Here you are hard pressed to argue that it is reasonable to serve 23 to an UNDERAGED coustomer. The jury (correctly in my eyes and in the judge's) found that the bar negligently served liquor in excess to the patron, and did so at their own legal peril.
"Once that man leaves the bar, there is no moral or ethical obligation on the part of the bar owners. He is responsible for himself."
The bar had a legal obligation not SERVE HIM IN THE FIRST PLACE... nor intoxicate him to that point in the first place. There is nothing moral or ethical about this.
"Tell me, had he walked accross the street and robbed a store, is the bar still liable? He did it only because he was drunk and it removed his inhibitions, just as his inhibitions to drive drunk were removed, as was his ability to drive safely."
Different case. In my humble opinion, the robbery would be an intervening criminal act which would preclude the bar's liability. With drunk driving it is different, because it is reasonable to expect that an intoxicated customer will get behind the wheel of a car and will hurt somebody. Sorry. Bar not liable. Intoxication may operate as an excuse for the criminal act for the drunk robber, but more than likely he is going to the hole. Those cases usually get pled out. I don't see a TX court holding a bar criminally liable for robbery - it is simply too remote. The character of the offenses is simply far too different - one being a malum en se (robbery) and the other malum prohibitum (drunk driving)
Drunk driving is a logical consequence of intoxication - not robbery. Both can happen, but robbery is too remote. Not only that, bars go through licensing. This licensing requires classes that educate bar owners, bartenders, and others with respect to the liabilty of running a bar. Legal liability is a cost of doing business. The bar is liable, just as Ford is for a munfacturing defect on an Explorer that rolled. Both have insurance, as a cost of their business.
"Where is the line drawn, DA? I have presented my opinion, and in it is a well defined and irefutable line. Your opinion is nothing but a swamp of slippery slopes."
You presented a line that is not only unreasonable, but contrary to the law and public policy. If you hold only the patron liable, what is to stop a bar from serving an unlimited amount of liquor every night to its patrons, endangering society. With your line, it would make it profitable for the bar to do so... Bars cut people off all the time, because they understand the potential liability for not doing so. Ther bar across the street from my house does... I have seen them do it. It is just good public policy. What is the slippery slope? The standard is negligence. Juries deal with this issue daily - in a wide variety of actions. What is the big deal with this?
Bars are already liable - from sea to shining sea. They have been for years. There is nothing new here, except your indignance.
"This is just another case in the US of people passing the buck on personal responsibility."
You are wrong. In Texas, both are "joint and severally liable" - Here the kid and the bar are both are liable individually for the full amount of the judgement. The injured person is only entitled to one recovery of the judgement though.
We do not know the full amount of the damages at issue.... but the kid would probably pay to the extent of his auto insurance coverage, and the bar would be on the hook for its share... whatever it is. BOTH ARE RESPONSIBLE. There is no passing of the buck.
This is a bad case to pick to illustrate your point.