One is called out specifically as a constitutional right; the other is not.
Yes, I meant in terms of consistency, there is obviously a legal difference.
problem is many drugs cause people to do things that effect others.
But don't you see here that the exact same thing can be said about guns? You may not affect anyone with your guns -- just as I might not affect anyone with my drug use (this is an example, I'm too boring to do drugs). But you say other people could use drugs improperly. So can (and do) some gun owners.
Thanks, Dank.
On the anthrax analogy, let's be clear what the point is. It's simply that in this 'if x is outlawed only outlaws will have x' is a fallacy.
Not only is it not a fallacy, it's practically a tautology. If you make something illegal, then by definition, those who still own it are law-breakers.
Rather, what you are really trying to address is this:
It completely ignores the relevant question - how many fewer outlaws will have x than if it's not outlawed?
Right, and that's a difficult question to answer.
Now, you have to look at each case. In the case of alcohol - which there were reasons to ban - it turned out not to work at all - drinking actually went up.
But that was my whole point -- you have to look at each case. And banning guns would be a lot more comparable to banning alcohol than banning anthrax.
A large percentage of guns used in crimes were stolen from legal gun owners - so reducing the number of those legal owners actually would reduce the supply for criminals.
To some extent. But some of those who formerly stole from legal gun owners would get them in other ways instead.
At any rate, we can agree to disagree on how many guns would still get into the country if they were banned. But given past history -- alcohol, marijuana, and so forth -- I see no reason to believe that banning guns will mean nobody has them any more. It will just mean nobody who respects the law has them.