for 0.9... = 1 true believers

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TridenT

Lifer
Sep 4, 2006
16,800
45
91
Originally posted by: So
Originally posted by: PlasmaBomb
Originally posted by: Epic Fail
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: scott
GodlessAstronomer Drove Me To It

a = b

ab = b^2

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2


b(a - b) = (a + b)(a - b)

b = a + b

b = b + b

b = 2b

1 = 2

ha ha ha lol . If true then 0.9... = 1




(who'll be first to point "it" out and win a gold star for their forehead?)

Does not compute.

Still fail after the edit.

OK...

ab = b^2 Right?

so ab - b^2 = 0

a = b

Therefore a^2 = b^2

a^2 - b^2 = 0

0 = 0 Right?

Therefore

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2 (since 0 = 0)

The problem is, a valid proof requires every step to be explicitly stated.

Explain what you mean for us morons.
 

So

Lifer
Jul 2, 2001
25,923
17
81
Originally posted by: TridenT
Originally posted by: So
Originally posted by: PlasmaBomb
Originally posted by: Epic Fail
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: scott
GodlessAstronomer Drove Me To It

a = b

ab = b^2

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2


b(a - b) = (a + b)(a - b)

b = a + b

b = b + b

b = 2b

1 = 2

ha ha ha lol . If true then 0.9... = 1




(who'll be first to point "it" out and win a gold star for their forehead?)

Does not compute.

Still fail after the edit.

OK...

ab = b^2 Right?

so ab - b^2 = 0

a = b

Therefore a^2 = b^2

a^2 - b^2 = 0

0 = 0 Right?

Therefore

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2 (since 0 = 0)

The problem is, a valid proof requires every step to be explicitly stated.

Explain what you mean for us morons.

In between the second and third (the bolded) lines he substitutes a^2 in place of b^2, otherwise it would be b^2 - b^2 which is blatantly obviously zero.
 

PlasmaBomb

Lifer
Nov 19, 2004
11,636
2
81
Originally posted by: PlasmaBomb

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2 (since 0 = 0)

For tridentboy -

To get to the next line you simplify

LHS b is a common term so (ab - b^2) is the same as the function b(a-b), multiply out the brackets if you need to

RHS a+b is a common term so a^2 - b^2 = (a+b)(a-b)

equation is b(a-b) = (a+b)(a-b)

to get to the next line you divide both sides by (a-b) since it is common - this is where it goes wrong since a = b, and a-a = 0

Divide by zero error

b = a + b
 

hanoverphist

Diamond Member
Dec 7, 2006
9,867
23
76
Originally posted by: scott


b = b + b

b = 2b

i saw the !div0 but kept getting hung up on this part... 1+1 is 2, but 2b is 2*b which would be 1 anyway. you put the solution into the equation as a multiplier.
 

PlasmaBomb

Lifer
Nov 19, 2004
11,636
2
81
Originally posted by: frostedflakes
Originally posted by: mchammer187
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: PlasmaBomb
That line is fine it is essentially

b^2 - b^2 = b^2 - b^2

I'm saying it doesn't follow from his second line.

subtract b^2 from both sides and then do a substitution of b^2 -> a^2 on the right
You can't do that, though. If you do something to one side you have to do it to the other.

You are forgetting that a^2 = b^2

so you are doing the same to each side...
 

PlasmaBomb

Lifer
Nov 19, 2004
11,636
2
81
Originally posted by: So
Originally posted by: TridenT
Originally posted by: So
Originally posted by: PlasmaBomb
Originally posted by: Epic Fail
Originally posted by: Kyteland
Originally posted by: scott
GodlessAstronomer Drove Me To It

a = b

ab = b^2

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2


b(a - b) = (a + b)(a - b)

b = a + b

b = b + b

b = 2b

1 = 2

ha ha ha lol . If true then 0.9... = 1




(who'll be first to point "it" out and win a gold star for their forehead?)

Does not compute.

Still fail after the edit.

OK...

ab = b^2 Right?

so ab - b^2 = 0

a = b

Therefore a^2 = b^2

a^2 - b^2 = 0

0 = 0 Right?

Therefore

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2 (since 0 = 0)

The problem is, a valid proof requires every step to be explicitly stated.

Explain what you mean for us morons.

In between the second and third (the bolded) lines he substitutes a^2 in place of b^2, otherwise it would be b^2 - b^2 which is blatantly obviously zero.

That bit trident in case you haven't noticed...
 

PlasmaBomb

Lifer
Nov 19, 2004
11,636
2
81
Originally posted by: scott
Originally posted by: TridenT


Explain what you mean for us morons.

It means it's wrong because, as our winner mchammer187 pointed out above, the "proof" requires you to divide by zero.

sort of like the fraudulent claim 0.9... = 1

:sun:

0.999... = 1

is not fraudulent

False proofs

^
|
|
|
See not on that page
 

datalink7

Lifer
Jan 23, 2001
16,765
6
81
This again?

Since we are doing this again, we may as well visit a related joke.

It's really funny. Read all the way to the end!
<snip> :| I can't remember... did it get written that reposting this is vacationable for being extra annoying? -Anandtech Moderator DrPizza
Jack took a firmer grip on the steering wheel as the RV ran up on the stone.
Shouting to Sammy as he pulled the steering wheel, "BETTER NATE THAN LEVER,"
he ran over the snake.

THE END
 
Sep 29, 2004
18,656
67
91
Originally posted by: scott
GodlessAstronomer Drove Me To It

a = b

ab = b^2

ab - b^2 = a^2 - b^2

b(a - b) = (a + b)(a - b)

b(0) = (a+b)(0)[/b] (since a-b must always equal 0)

0 = 0

b = a + b

b = b + b

b = 2b

1 = 2

ha ha ha lol . If true then 0.9... = 1




(who'll be first to point "it" out and win a gold star for their forehead?)

Inserted the part people tend to ignore. (a-b) always equates to ZERO! The flaw in this bullshit formula.