Originally posted by: Syringer
It's a simple problem, and I don't see what I'm doing wrong..
You have to take the inverse laplace of
1/(s+2)^2
So, simple enough it's t^2/2 * e^(-2t)
The book though says t^2/2 * e^(-t)
It has to be -2t right?
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
you do know that t^2/2 is the same as t^1 which is the same at t, right?
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
you do know that t^2/2 is the same as t^1 which is the same at t, right?
No, I meant it's (1/2)t^2..
But whoops, I actually meant 1/(s+2)^3..
Originally posted by: dighn
in that case you should be right
