miketheidiot
Lifer
Originally posted by: bamacre
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: bamacre
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: soccerballtux
Repeal of the Glass-Steagall act (this was Clinton) + uber low interest rates (fault for this was Greenspan) + government lending programs (FM&FM) lead to where we are now.
Considering that more than 60% of all mortgages were either Alt-A or subprime non-conforming, F&F didn't cause the problem. Low interest rates didn't cause the problem either, look at the Fed Funds rate vs mortgage rates, there isn't a 1:1 relationship. Long-term rates are set by the market, not by the Fed.
The biggest problem is a lack of regulation in origination or mortgages through eventual disposition of same. 100% leverage from the borrower, to the broker (who never took a position) to the seller/securitizer, to the investor (CDOs), caused the vast majority of the problem. 100% leverage squeezed risk premiums and allowed *nobody* to take the bottom-end risk.
Who caused this lack of regulation and allowance for over-leveraging? Paulson lobbied in 2004 for the i-banks to be allowed to uber-leverage. In 2001 FAS140 was put in place, allowing for off-bs securitizations in a large mass-production effort.
No matter how many times you repeat otherwise, the Fed was the primary cause of the problem. Your denial that the Fed deserves some blame really makes you appear foolish.
Man, I am fucking tired of this. I've tried to lead you to the water but you refuse to drink on your own. Instead, you're fucking lazy and want to be spoon-fed Mises.org and YouTube videos.
Here you have Fed Funds rate vs a 30-year fixed mortgage rate, from 1995 through May 2009. as you can see, the spread between FF is what determines the rate of interest. As you can see, the spread compressed about 60% during the period in question.
As you can see, the long-term rate of mortgages ARE NOT set by the Fed, the Fed drops rates significantly while 30-year fixed rates DO NOT MOVE. Why? Because the market doesn't react to short-term rate movements of the Fed. Furthermore, as you can see from the second chart, the spread as a % of the total mortgage rate balloons out during the periods in question. Why? BECAUSE THE MARKET SETS THE FUCKING RATE!!!!!!!!
http://i21.photobucket.com/alb...gndKiller/FFvs30yr.jpg
http://i21.photobucket.com/alb...274/LgndKiller/FF2.jpg
I expect some bullshit from you next without any data or analysis, or some YouTube or Mises link, which won't provide anything of substance. Please, at least meet my expectations for your failure.
Much of your post is irrelevant. All of those rates are low. And how is that possible? The Fed was pumping way too much new money into the market.
When even Vic states the Fed was the primary source of the problem, and you continue to state otherwise, why should anyone listen to you?
interest rates were low because other countries were saving too much money and lending it in american (and english) financial markets