- Jun 24, 2006
- 3,248
- 1
- 81
On the news just now they said something about Washington Mutual being "seized by federal regulators", with parts being immediately sold to JP Morgan. What is the legal process that precipitated this seizure? Did WaMu have to approach the government with some kind of legal declaration about its finances which then prompted the government to seize and sell?
These mortgage backed securities are called "toxic", and apparently WaMu had a lot of them; why did this cause them to fall? Couldn't they have sat on these and waited for whatever payout may come? Exactly how have these pools of mortgage loans caused them to fail at this particular time, and not one year ago, or one month ago? It seems the banks that fell were the ones who had a significant amount of their net worth tied up in these flaky securities, which were bought at prices that reflected the inflated housing market. What provided the elasticity that allowed Wamu to last at least a week longer than the others (Sallie/Freddie/AIG/Lehman)? Did all of these "fall" in the same way? What is the harm in letting these banks fall? Why is credit frozen up by just the fact that these banks have these bad loans? If Microsoft needed to borrow money for a few months to pay for it's employees, who would they normally turn to for the funds, and which of those options would no longer be available if we didn't have a bailout? Are these falling banks the only options for Microsoft in this scenario?
Why were the mortgage security prices inflated? I would think with all the brilliant minds these firms have recruited from top universities every year for decades, that they would have developed by now the practice of understanding all details behind risks they are taking? Why didn't they say "why should I buy these mortgages that were loaned to people with no income?" These "liar loans" come into play here, and the logic here is either stupid or stupider -- anyone buying the mortgage pools should have been aware of the lending practices being employed, no? Why would they put their money into these? Banks are supposed to act in their own self interest, why didn't they do so in this case? Is this why the "free market" did not determine a fair price for the securities?
Jeez. It seems so obvious now that everyone has pointed all these things out. It seems stupid to me that this could have even taken place, so I feel like there has to be something I'm missing. Has everyone involved, from the individuals posting mortgages likely to foreclose, to those who purchased these mortgages (securitized), been playing a game of musical chairs to the tunes of "Real Estate Bubble Rock"?
These mortgage backed securities are called "toxic", and apparently WaMu had a lot of them; why did this cause them to fall? Couldn't they have sat on these and waited for whatever payout may come? Exactly how have these pools of mortgage loans caused them to fail at this particular time, and not one year ago, or one month ago? It seems the banks that fell were the ones who had a significant amount of their net worth tied up in these flaky securities, which were bought at prices that reflected the inflated housing market. What provided the elasticity that allowed Wamu to last at least a week longer than the others (Sallie/Freddie/AIG/Lehman)? Did all of these "fall" in the same way? What is the harm in letting these banks fall? Why is credit frozen up by just the fact that these banks have these bad loans? If Microsoft needed to borrow money for a few months to pay for it's employees, who would they normally turn to for the funds, and which of those options would no longer be available if we didn't have a bailout? Are these falling banks the only options for Microsoft in this scenario?
Why were the mortgage security prices inflated? I would think with all the brilliant minds these firms have recruited from top universities every year for decades, that they would have developed by now the practice of understanding all details behind risks they are taking? Why didn't they say "why should I buy these mortgages that were loaned to people with no income?" These "liar loans" come into play here, and the logic here is either stupid or stupider -- anyone buying the mortgage pools should have been aware of the lending practices being employed, no? Why would they put their money into these? Banks are supposed to act in their own self interest, why didn't they do so in this case? Is this why the "free market" did not determine a fair price for the securities?
Jeez. It seems so obvious now that everyone has pointed all these things out. It seems stupid to me that this could have even taken place, so I feel like there has to be something I'm missing. Has everyone involved, from the individuals posting mortgages likely to foreclose, to those who purchased these mortgages (securitized), been playing a game of musical chairs to the tunes of "Real Estate Bubble Rock"?
