I think you're missing part of the ruling. He did not have to "perform his simulation on someone's else's
actual skin flute." That wouldn't have been a simulation of sexual activity, that would have been
actual sexual activity.
If he held it up to someone's crotch and pretended to perform oral sex on it, that would be simulated oral sex in the eyes of this court. But because it was not near anyone else's genitalia, it couldn't have been a simulation of oral sex.
So yes it does rest on what the judge thinks constitutes simulation. The judge feels that because another person wasn't present, he couldn't have been simulating oral sex. But the only part of the other person that is necessary for oral sex
was present (in er... simulated form).
The thing this judge is missing is that any simulation involves some level of abstraction. Dildos are used to simulate sex, but for practical purposes they leave the rest of the body out.
In college I built a simulation of a restaurant. Guess how much food was involved? None! How could that possibly be? A restaurant is a business which exists to make and serve food. A simulation of a restaurant
must include food! Right?
This judge chose to define a simulation much more strictly than it is actually defined.
What I want to know is, why the hell did he lubricate it?