Alright then, how does an anti-sodomy law violate the 4th Amendment's prohibition against "unreasonable searches and seizures", provided that the statute does not direct the government (law enforcement) to go peeking into people's windows or hiding in their bushes or entering their homes trying to catch people violating anti-sodomy laws?HELLO ! The people can't pass a law that violates the Constitiution. A law as you describe would therefore not be "sanctioned", it would not be a valid law.
I am inclined to accept this, so long as this vernacular "right to privacy", as it is used in lieu of 'freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures', and as a phrase to describe the general principle of the 4th Amendment, does not take on a whole life and meaning of its own which is at odds with or completely unrelated to:And it's common sense, apart from the legal descriptions, that freedom from unreasonable searches is just another way of saying a right to privacy..
Originally posted by: AndrewR
Bottom line to the discussion: There is no per se right to privacy spelled out in the Constitution. That right was crafted by the Supreme Court.
It's amusing to see people who have probably never even read a judicial opinion critisizing the legal analysis of a sitting Supreme Court judge. Who has more credibility?
It's amusing to see people who have probably never even read a judicial opinion critisizing the legal analysis of a sitting Supreme Court judge. Who has more credibility?
Of course the government can show that homosexual acts are harmful and contrary to the public interest, just as the government can show that polygamy is harmful, contrary to the public interest, and prohibit it. Just as the government can "deem" almost arbitrarily one certain age to be the age of consent and criminalize sexual relations with anyone under that age of consent, even if the 'underage' person in fact consented to those sexual realations.The government has no moral authority to condemn the actions of consenting adults without showing demonstarable harm to the participants or to other persons in legal proximity. Homosexual acts (among many other things) by consenting adults in private cannot be shown to be harmful and therefore should not be under the pervue of the government.
Originally posted by: tnitsuj
Clarence Thomas is an ultra strict constructionist. If it isn't actually literally spelled out in the actual words of the Constitution he doesn't care for it. He is also IMHO one of the most worthless Supreme Court justices ever. Ever read his book? It is basically a big long whiney rant.
Originally posted by: jackschmittusa
tcsenter
If the Texas government had demonstrated that the practices were harmful (which included fellatio), why did it only apply to homosexual sex? It was perfectly legal for heterosexual couples.
Originally posted by: AndrewR
"Bottom line to the discussion: There is no per se right to privacy spelled out in the Constitution. That right was crafted by the Supreme Court."
____________________________________
Crafted ? I would use the word deduced, since if there was no right to privacy, there would be no need to protect it by limiting searches.
There is also nothing in the Constitution that explicitly says the Supreme Court has the authority to decide if a law conflicts with the Constitution. Where does Clarence Thomas find the authority for himself to make such a judgement ?
Originally posted by: Vadatajs
There is no explicitly stated right to privacy in the constitution. Read it sometime. The closest thing is the 4th ammendment, and section 1 of the 14th, which would require a reference to the vague language of the 4th to be interprited.
That said, there should be.
Originally posted by: rahvin
Originally posted by: Vadatajs
There is no explicitly stated right to privacy in the constitution. Read it sometime. The closest thing is the 4th ammendment, and section 1 of the 14th, which would require a reference to the vague language of the 4th to be interprited.
That said, there should be.
The constitution does not define "rights" of citizens. It defines what the rights of government are and leaves the rest to the citizens. The problem with the bill of rights is that the defined some "rights" and thereby gives the interpretation that the constitution defines the citizens rights and all others are reserved for government. Exactly what the framers were afraid would happen and is very common thinking among the citizenry these days.
Now, Judge, in your view, does the Liberty Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment protect the right of women to decide for themselves in certain instances whether or not to terminate pregnancy?
JUDGE THOMAS: Senator, first of all, let me look at that in the context other than with natural law principles.
SENATOR BIDEN: Let's forget about natural law for a minute.
JUDGE THOMAS: My view is that there is a right to privacy in the Fourteenth Amendment.
Originally posted by: jahawkin
Then there's this little gem from the Clarence Thomas confimation hearings:
linky
Now, Judge, in your view, does the Liberty Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment protect the right of women to decide for themselves in certain instances whether or not to terminate pregnancy?
JUDGE THOMAS: Senator, first of all, let me look at that in the context other than with natural law principles.
SENATOR BIDEN: Let's forget about natural law for a minute.
JUDGE THOMAS: My view is that there is a right to privacy in the Fourteenth Amendment.![]()
Again, exigent circumstances exempting the government from obtaining a warrant is already a well-settled and virtually uncontested principle of law. If someone reports that they heard gun shots and screams coming from inside your home, the police are coming in - warrant or not - and that is a legitimate exigent circumstance.
If while they are there, they happen incidentally to discover a meth lab, they just have to let you continue producing meth in the 'privacy' of your home?
Originally posted by: Shantanu
There is no right to privacy in the Constitution.
