Originally posted by: aidanjm
Originally posted by: Kibbo
Do you send your wife/GF/daughter/mother into exile every time she's on her rag? It's the word of God.
Lev 15:22 And whosoever toucheth any thing that she sat upon shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.
Do you consider yourself "unclean" after you go to a restaurant or other public place?
Show me how you are not being inconsistent with your reasoning. If every word in the Bible is the word of God, how do you justify breaking that word so regularly? Since you beleive that our legal system should be based on the word of God, should the separation of women who are "unclean" be legally enforced?
Xians will often argue that Jesus? sacrifice made redundant the old laws (Leviticus) (with the exception of the Ten Commandments) when faced with the kinds of objections you've raised above. So let's check out some of St. Paul's charming and respectful NT comments pertaining to women:
4 the women should keep silence in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be subordinate, as even the law says.
35 If there is anything they desire to know, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church. (1 Cor. 14:34-35)
22 Wives, be subject to your husbands, as to the Lord.
23 For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church, his body, and is himself its Savior.
24 As the church is subject to Christ, so let wives also be subject in everything to their husbands. (Eph. 5:22-24)
12 I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over men; she is to keep silent.
Let's face it, Paul was an ignorant bigot. He was a misogynist, a homophobe, a racist. That's not surprising, he was raised in a racist, patriarchal, macho culture. What I would like to know is this: how does the contemporary Xian reject (or fail to adhere to) St. Paul's advice re: women, and also his racist comments re: Jewish people, but choose to 'respect' or value Paul's comments which (allegedly) condemn homosexual sex acts? What is the logical principle that allows this? Is there some logic behind this, or are contemporary Xians simply (and dishonestly) **cherry-picking** Xian scripture in order to justify their PRE-EXISTING biases against gays or against homosexual sex? It seems to me that people come to the xian scripture with an antihomosexual bias, and sure enough (suprise, surprise) they find textual material to "support" their antigay position. They can't do this, however, without sacrificing logical consistency and hence without sacrificing their intellectual integrity. It is a dishonest approach to scripture.