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Cause or effect?

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Originally posted by: piasabird
So the poor people in these high income states should be paid a higher minimum wage. However, rich people tend to be even stingier.

Which is where illegal immigrant labor comes into play.
 
states with high income are usually states where the cost of living is also high...
so are you better off with high income + high COL or low income + low COL
honestly low is much easier to sustain...
 
Originally posted by: Stunt
Ok, you guys are going to think I am nerdy as hell but this is a tech forum...so I don't care.

Using the tax rate from each state see tax foundation numbers...
Complete a regression analysis and the fit of this correlation is poor. R square value of 0.18 which is a very poor fit, meaning it's not proportional or related.

However, I did the same analysis with average income and IQ and it produced an R square value of 0.39 which makes much more sense.
It's more likely that income is driven by education and/or intelligence, not by the level of taxation.
I figured the idea that 'high services" would not only include education but also include other government spending that allows people to attend school longer and achieve higer education would be apparent as part of the high tax/high sevices part of my post.
I guess it wasn't.
But it is.

 
Originally posted by: Stunt
Ok, you guys are going to think I am nerdy as hell but this is a tech forum...so I don't care.

Using the tax rate from each state see tax foundation numbers...
Complete a regression analysis and the fit of this correlation is poor. R square value of 0.18 which is a very poor fit, meaning it's not proportional or related.

However, I did the same analysis with average income and IQ and it produced an R square value of 0.39 which makes much more sense.
It's more likely that income is driven by education and/or intelligence, not by the level of taxation.

an R^2 of .18 is pretty high for economic data.

do the regression for education vs tax rates, i would suspect there is quite a bit of correlation.

Originally posted by: brandonbull
Since a .39 value is still weak and it's based on data sets such as IQ and average income, nothing can or should be concluded.

.39 is huge for economic data, that is a very meaningful number.
 
the general argument is that in states where the government does more for its citizens (particularily education, but also basic human services, healthcare, etc) will have more valuable and productive citizens, and hence a higher income.
 
Originally posted by: soccerballtux
Originally posted by: PokerGuy
Originally posted by: MotF Bane
Techs, are you related to Phokus?

...... only if you consider a lack of comprehension or capability to think clearly as a relationship.

Close enough for me
Phokus is a joke.

Let's hope he doesn't notice this.

Else we're in for a massive thread-jack.
 
Originally posted by: techs
When you except such states as Alaska or Texas which have huge natural resource industries most of the "donor" states which have high income and pour money into the "recipient' states have high taxes and high services.
Is there a correlation between high taxes/high services and higher income? Clearly there is.
But are the high taxes/services the reason those states have high income and are donor states? And is it the reason low tax/low services have low incomes and are recipient states?

Originally posted by: glenn1
trying to show conservatives how wrong they are about everything (and how "correct" you are) is getting tiresome.


I like how the die hard conservatives post in this thread just sort of attack techs, rather than even attempt to answer the question or debate it.

What's the matter guys? You have no answers?
 
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