Originally posted by: silverpig
Originally posted by: RaynorWolfcastle
OK, since everyone is going nuts over semantics I'll clear up what I meant:
if f'(x) = 0 you have a local maximum or minimum because it means that the tangent is HORIZONTAL.
GENERALLY If f'(x) = 0 it implies absolutely nothing about that point being an inflection point; it is the second derivative test that gives you information about that (f"(x) = 0).
If you want, I can draw you all a nice little function that has n points of inflection without having either a max or a min (using high order polynomial).
Yes, it is possible that there is a point of inflection where there is an extremum, but by the logic you're using I could say "y = x^2, has a zero at x = 0 therefore all functions have a zero when the dependent variable is zero". That is why I said he was wrong, the statement was wrong because there is no GENERAL relation between the first derivative test and the points of inflection.
I'm done with this thread, I don't need to be taught elementary calculus, I understand it very well thank you very much.
Actually, you fvcked this explanation up too.
🙂
"if f'(x) = 0 you have a local maximum or minimum because it means that the tangent is HORIZONTAL."
BS. The x^3 example. You have f' = 0, but no local max or min. Tangent is horizontal.
Unless of course you meant to limit the scope of your statement to the problem stated by the original poster. I don't usually nitpick like this, but I really don't want MrCodeDude to get confused with half correct information or unclear statements.