bourgeoisie?

[Corporate Thug]

is the bourgeoisie the same as the working class?

 

[Zrom999]

I believe it refers to the middle class of pre-revolution France.

 

[0roo0roo]

i thought it was the opposite. what a commie would call u as an insult. proletariate(sp) is the term i i think

 

[Zebo]

Too spicy unless you have a very large French Roll, French Bree, And a XL Glass of French wine to wash it down.

It means asristocrat

 

[0roo0roo]

i'm right. In Marxist theory, a member of the property-owning class; a capitalist.

 

[mugs]

Originally posted by: Zrom999
I believe it refers to the middle class of pre-revolution France.

Or more specifically, the people who lived in towns (as opposed to on farms, etc), who happened to be the middle class. Literally translated, it means something to the effect of someone who lives in a town.

 

[burnedout]

Originally posted by: 0roo0roo
i'm right. In Marxist theory, a member of the property-owning class; a capitalist.

Correct. Proletarians are the working-class according to Marx. Numerous references by academia are also made of the "bourgeois" as middle-class in describing Western societies.

 

[Colt45]

the proletariat is the group of people "working for the man"
the bourgeois is "the man"

 

[Corporate Thug]

thanx for the replies all! obviously, there are many politically competent people here so i wanna pose another question. can anyone explain the following statement: "there can be no democracy with the bourgeoisie"??

 

[mugs]

Originally posted by: shady06
thanx for the replies all! obviously, there are many politically competent people here so i wanna pose another question. can anyone explain the following statement: "there can be no democracy with the bourgeoisie"??

In one context was that quote? My best guess is that it means the elite will always have more influence in government than the lower classes. The United States is as good an example of that as any country.

 

[Corporate Thug]

Originally posted by: mugsywwiii

Originally posted by: shady06
thanx for the replies all! obviously, there are many politically competent people here so i wanna pose another question. can anyone explain the following statement: "there can be no democracy with the bourgeoisie"??

In one context was that quote? My best guess is that it means the elite will always have more influence in government than the lower classes. The United States is as good an example of that as any country.

the context is the rise of democracy in england as opposed to france. it seems that the bourg. played an important role in development of democracy in england but the was not the case in france

My guess was that a bourgeoisie class is needed to close the gap between peasants and aristocracy so a revolution will not occer

 

[Deleted member 4644]

Yes- I can answer that question as I just took a class on it. In England, the capitalist middle class discovered a new method for using wool, and began a wool trade. This made them rich and weakened the power of the nobility. This in turn, led to democracy.

The French, in constrast, prevented the rise of the middle class, thus they have had a more unstable form of democracy.

 

[konichiwa]

the term "bourgeoisie" has changed a lot over the past ~300 years. In the French revolution in 1789(?) it referred to the common people, the middle class. Later, in marxist/leninist russia it referred to the landowning/wealthy capitalists.