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assuming .99999999... = 1....

Walleye

Banned
alright, this is a statistics question i was bored out of my mind one day...

now, assuming .999999999... = 1,

can we assume:

Event has an infintesimally small chance of going way A, and the rest of the time it goes way B.

now, can we assume that .000000..... = 0? or does it represent some real number? if it represents a real number, can this work?

assuming an infinant number of trials (the event can be rerun till it goes the way of A) is it a given that it will go way A?

am i stoned?
 
rolleye.gif
 
My math teacher said that .99999999 repeating was 1.
I assume .000000(infinite number of zeros) 0000001 is 0.
 
There is no infintesimal difference between 0.999... and 1. That is what is means for 0.999... to equal one.

Now let this rest.

Edit the above statement applied to the fact that we have given that 0.999... = 1. While I personally believe this to be true, I do not wish to rehash the truth of this stament. Walleye has this as an assumption and as such I will not try to prove nor challange that.
 
Originally posted by: Hanpan
There is no infintesimal differnce between 0.999... and 1. That is what is means for 0.999... to equal one.

Now let this rest.

Leeeeeeettttttttsssssss Get Ready To Ruuuummmmbbbblllleeeeeee!!!!!!
 
Originally posted by: Walleye
alright, this is a statistics question i was bored out of my mind one day...

now, assuming .999999999... = 1

Assuming something contradictory is not a good way to prove something with the direct proof method.

ups
 
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