Originally posted by: Vic
Originally posted by: MadCowDisease
Marriage when ending in divorce is mostly (if not always) a mutual decision. As such, there is no compelling state interest to become involved - it has no role, nor any responsibility because no parties are being wronged (in purely contractual logic here).
I'm confused by your insistence that divorce is mostly (or always) mutual. Nothing could be further from the truth. It is all too frequently not mutual. In my parent's divorce, for example, it was FAR from mutual.
In those cases when both parties mutual agree to divorce and to be amicable about it, then I have absolutely no issues with it. But I think you should realize that is the exception not the rule, and that you are misinformed. The usual is that one side finally gives up, files, and
sues for divorce. All too frequently there was infidelity on the part of the petitioner prior to filing. Sure, both sides may have seen it coming, but that doesn't mean that both sides wanted it.
And Dave, for a time limited contract, then a termination date would need to be in the original contract. Last I checked, such was not the case with marriages, not even those done solely by the state with no religious involvement whatsoever. If people wish to put such termination clauses in their marriage contracts, then I would support such an idea.
Think of my position like this. I don't like taxes, but I pay them without fail. I don't like that we have government-controlled marriages, but we do, and so I think people should abide by them if they choose to get married.