Originally posted by: Craig234
Originally posted by: Corbett
Originally posted by: Craig234
Originally posted by: Corbett
Originally posted by: Craig234
So, the question is, has public opinion shifted enough since 2000, when discrimination passed with 61%, to prevent 50% voting for it now as an amendment. Polls say yes, barely.
Does it really matter? We've already learned that no matter what the people vote, the courts in California are going to overrule it and do what they want anyways.
Idiotic comment. If the amendment passes, gay marriage discrimination will occur, period.
And if the passed amendment is overruled by the courts, judcial activism will have occurred again, period.
I'll say this very slowly for you.
The concept under which gay marriage was declared legal is the one which says that the constitution overrides laws.
Since the constitution guarantees equal protection, and the state was unable to prove any basis for discriminating, 4 of the 7 justices enforced the constitution.
If the amendment passes, then it modified the guarantee of equal protection not to include equal protection for gays on marital rights, so the entire basis for the ruling is gone.
At that point, the constitution itself would say discrimination is required, and there's no further constitutional review available.
What you are speculating about is called "
paranoia", that the big bad evil courts are secretly serving evil to hurt you without regard for the law.