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And now for some facts you weren't aware of, 1=2 *with poll*

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You can prove all sorts of nonesence when you divide by zero. Thats why you cant do it. Hiding the division by 0 in variables does not change the fact that you cant divide by it.
 
someone wrote that solution on his/her exam (and got a F 😉) and is now trying to justify it before he/she goes back and talks with his/her professor/teacher saying that he/she was right and the teacher/professor was wrong 😛
 
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Originally posted by: dugweb
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Prove my math is wrong then. 😛

there's nothing wrong with it, it just didn't provide a solution.
It solved a proof is what it did. 😛

There is something wrong with it. He divides by zero.

You multiply an equality by zero, rearrange, and then divide the zero out - this is not a valid step.
 
Originally posted by: yukichigai
Originally posted by: dugweb
nope, you can arrange an equation hundreds of ways using all sorts of rules and methods, but sometimes the outcome doesn't provide a solution, as in this case. At this point (if you were actually trying to figure out what x = ) then you would have to give up and try a different plan of attack, beause 1 =/ 2
Prove my math is wrong then. 😛

You cannot divide both sides by (y - x) sine y - x = 0 according to original statement.
 
The good ol' divide by zero trick I learned in Pre-school and heard about in kindergarden. Keep up the good work!
 
x(y - x) = (y + x)(y - x)

For those of you who slept through algebra, trust me, you can do that. We can now remove (y - x) from both sides to get

x = y + x

Uh, no.

 
Originally posted by: yukichigai
I learned an interesting fact last night. I have little doubt that you're wondering how the hell I'm going to prove it. Okay...

Let's start with two variables, x and y. Let's assume that

x = y

Now we multiply both sides of the equation by y to get

xy = y²

Still true, so far so good. Now we subtract from both sides to get

xy - x² = y² - x²

which is still equal. Now here's the kinda tricky part. If we break down the equation into factors we get

x(y - x) = (y + x)(y - x)

For those of you who slept through algebra, trust me, you can do that. We can now remove (y - x) from both sides to get

x = y + x

But if you remember, just a moment ago we said that

x = y

meaning we can replace y with x, giving us

x = x + x

or

x = 2x

The it's just a matter of dividing both sides of the equation by x and we're left with

1 = 2

The world is flat.


Discuss.

you cant devide by ZERO
 
Originally posted by: JEDI
Originally posted by: yukichigai
I learned an interesting fact last night. I have little doubt that you're wondering how the hell I'm going to prove it. Okay...

Let's start with two variables, x and y. Let's assume that

x = y

Now we multiply both sides of the equation by y to get

xy = y²

Still true, so far so good. Now we subtract from both sides to get

xy - x² = y² - x²

which is still equal. Now here's the kinda tricky part. If we break down the equation into factors we get

x(y - x) = (y + x)(y - x)

For those of you who slept through algebra, trust me, you can do that. We can now remove (y - x) from both sides to get

x = y + x

But if you remember, just a moment ago we said that

x = y

meaning we can replace y with x, giving us

x = x + x

or

x = 2x

The it's just a matter of dividing both sides of the equation by x and we're left with

1 = 2

The world is flat.


Discuss.

you cant devide by ZERO

are you sure about that?

 
ok ok, so you can't divide by zero.

There was another mistake in the original post.

x=2x doesn't imply 1=2.

It implies that x = 0.

I think someone pointed that out but i wanted to point it out again. 😛

Edit: Ah, that someone was SokaMoka.
 
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