TerryMathews
Lifer
- Oct 9, 1999
- 11,464
- 2
- 0
I'm not agreeing with you, not indulging in urban speak today. What you don't see or refuse to see is the word "breach" in that sentence. Yes? Thank you.
Second point. Do you understand that the breach would have occurred before actual acquisition? In that case, you go to 5.2(a), 5.2(d), and perhaps 5.2(e) in the instance of a bankruptcy.
So, don't jump the gun. AMD as a company must satisfy certain terms with Intel before it can be bought. AMD cannot offer the x86 license up for sale through acquisition by a third party because that immediately renders AMD in breach and strips it of all IPs and licenses, rendering the entire exercise pointless.
No, you're right. AMD cannot sell its license. I never said it could.
AMD can be bought as a whole, which does not violate 5.2(a) and instead invokes 5.2(c).
Furthermore, my original point was that US Bankruptcy Court can modify this agreement to preserve value for creditors. That point still stands.
Find one place where I said AMD could sell its license. You can't because I didn't.
And LOL @ "urban speak". If you think my post was "urban speak" then clearly you don't get out of your mom's basement very often.
