MisterBombastic
Member
- Apr 14, 2002
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Originally posted by: bsobel
How does that work out? How is copying without distribution for profit stealing? If one would not have purchased the product in the first place, how could making a copy of it for personal use be stealing? Since you seem to have an affinity to mouth off without backing up your idiotic statements with anything that approaches fact, you bsobel are the idiot.
Wow, when you get to high school, please take some introduction to the law class. It's quiet amazing you have no simple grasp of legal prinicipals. Copyright law does not require distribution for infringment to occur (of course, in your example, distribution did occur, otherwise where did you get your copy?). What part of this don't you understand? My backup for my 'idiotic statements' is U.S. law, what, btw, is yours?
Bill
I didn't go to 'high school' and never will as I don't live in the US. US law does not back up your statements. US law (including State law) is hauling Microsofts arse into court for illegal monopolistic practises.
Microsofts EULA is automatically invalidated anyway as in order to read it, one must not only purchase the software, but open it and run it too.
If I distributed it to myself, and I never intended to purchase it, what harm am I doing?