In this sort of a topology (where we have a L2 etherchannel and VLANs spanning switches) I understand why the spanning-tree root should be aligned with the HSRP active router.
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td.../119819.ps/_jcr_content/renditions/119819.jpg
If however we had VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 not spanning switches, and configured the first multilayer switch to be spanning-tree root for VLAN 20, what happens when to the root bridge when it fails over to the second multilayer switch?
Does the spanning-tree root for VLAN 20 automatically shift? Or would we need something like the spanning-tree vlan 20 secondary command?
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td.../119819.ps/_jcr_content/renditions/119819.jpg
If however we had VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 not spanning switches, and configured the first multilayer switch to be spanning-tree root for VLAN 20, what happens when to the root bridge when it fails over to the second multilayer switch?
Does the spanning-tree root for VLAN 20 automatically shift? Or would we need something like the spanning-tree vlan 20 secondary command?