I have to ask, if Doppel with his 0 dollars comes to my house and watches a movie on my TV is he "stealing" since you seem to insist on using that term for infringement? See it is not as black and white as you insist on making it with your stealing a car and returning it analogy. In my hypothetical he is within his and my fair use rights to view that DVD with me on my television, if he downloads it from a torrent and watches it on his own TV he is definitely infringing on the content producers copyright but it is in no way analogous to stealing a car and returning it. Note what I am defending here is the notion that in the Constitution Congress was given the power to grant "securing for limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries." They didn't consider these things to be mere property such as an automobile the theft of which is covered by common law.
Your "fair use" doesn't include other's "fair use". Legally. How would that work ?
However, the copyright holder can decide to let you do what your asking, and if you read the terms for use of the dvd, it probably allows for such use as long as you aren't profiting from it by selling tickets or selling refreshments.
You are describing how IP gets it's designation as "property", legally. That doesn't change the fact that taking that property without compensation is theft.
Besdies IP, it's also possible to steal services. Again it's the actions of the perpetrator that define theft, not the actual injury to the victim.
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