Whoozyerdaddy
Lifer
- Jun 27, 2005
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Originally posted by: Rainsford
Originally posted by: Whoozyerdaddy
Originally posted by: Stunt
So...Originally posted by: Whoozyerdaddy
Google and 15 seconds of your time.... Doesn't take long to find this. Breyer openly advocates using foreign law to set precident.Originally posted by: Stunt
Which legislation was passed or voted for based on "overseas legal opinions" and not following the US Constitution?
Btw, I only see one hack in this thread![]()
Originally posted by: Stunt
Which legislation was passed or voted for based on "overseas legal opinions" and not following the US Constitution?
Oh you said legislation.... missed that. Well... If our congress passes a piece of legislation, it doesn't matter where the idea came from. Once it's passed by congress it's United States law, deliberated and passed by representitives duly elected by the people.
If a court judgement is rendered based on foreign legislation or court cases then the entire process and point of representative government kind of flies out the window.
I must have been sleeping in my civics class...but my understanding is that the Supreme Court is not subordinate to Congress or the people. They have their function, which can include striking down legislation made by "representitives duly elected by the people". We don't live in an unlimited democracy, remember? I get the feeling a lot of criticism of the court comes from a misunderstanding of this idea.
Now, as far as foreign law goes, I still have seen no proof that the decision was made because of a foreign law or case. I see evidence to suggest such a case or ruling was mentioned in the SC ruling, but that is not the same thing.
You're right in your first statement. Almost.... Congress does have the power to impeach justices, redraw and eliminate court districts etc. But for the most part we do expect our judges to act independently of our elected officals. And yes, they have the power to strike down legislation that is in conflict with the constitution. What they don't have the power to do, but have assigned to themselves anyway, is to use foreign law and precident to decide the validity of US Laws in place of the constitution.
Some issues in our country are totally outside the jurisdiction of the courts altogether. Immigration in the consitution is left solely to the pervue of the congress. That hasn't stopped the courts from butting in... but it's wrong all the same.
This case is a perfect example where foreign law and common practice was cited. It was not the sole basis of the decision but it still had no place in the opinion.
Scalia ? joined once again by Rehnquist and Thomas ? wrote that "the court's discussion of these foreign views (ignoring, of course, the many countries that have retained criminal prohibitions on sodomy) is ... meaningless dicta. Dangerous dicta, however, since this court should not impose foreign moods, fads, or fashions on Americans."
