MichaelMay
Senior member
- Jun 6, 2021
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If a law gives a citizen a right to sue, can that law be upheld even if there is no standing for the suing citizen (or do I not standing correctly?)
For instance. If congress creates a law that says ordinary citizens may sue gun sellers and gun manufacturers for any gun used in a crime, would that work?
Let’s go a step further; let’s say the law bans all guns but it isn’t to be enforced by any government but it allows individual citizens to sue gun owners, manufactures, and resellers, would that be just as valid as this abortion law?
For gun ownership why not do what the Swiss do. It's the favorite nation of all 2A guys to compare the US to but the thing is. They have guns, LOADS of guns, they are even handed fully automatic rifles as part of their duty to their nation.
What they don't tell you is that you can't have any ammo for them, ammo is stored at the base or the range.
That's easy enough, the 2A says NOTHING about ammunition and the "SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED" people can't really whine about that since they are originalists against interpreting the constitution or viewing it as a living document (as it was intended to be).
Try that?