Originally posted by: Mursilis
No, it happens sometimes in law when the outcome of is very fact-driven.
Yes, it does.
Now, why don't you explain how a decision that a state not having a statewide standard for recounting votes, which Florida like apparently every other state lacked, is a violation of the equal protection amendment of the federal constitution, is "very fact-driven" such that the conflict only applies to the state of Florida in the year 2000?
Why, exactly, isn't the lack of such a standard a conflict in the other 49 states in 2000, and in all 50 states every other year, too? Does the equal protection amendment change somehow?
I practice under a federal court which issues 100's of decisions a year as memorandum decisions - that is, decisions which may not be cited for precedential value, and are not published in legal reporters. And your understanding of federal election law and the state administration thereof is weak at best.
You're projecting again. Of course there are situations that ARE 'very fact-driven' justifying such rulings. You haven't shown a whit of evidence why the one we're discussing was.
Question for you: can you recount the other Supreme Court decisions, not lower level courts, in which the ruling was 'limited to present circumstances'?