Originally posted by: heartsurgeon
you guys kill me...doesn't anyone read the source material anymore before they spout off about what it means?
link to UN resolution 1441:
"Recalling that its Resolution 678 (1990) authorized Member States to
use all necessary means to uphold and implement its resolution 660 (1990) of 2 August 1990 and
all relevant resolutions subsequent to resolution 660(1990) and to restore international peace and security in the area."
"Recognizing the threat Iraq's non-compliance with Council resolutions and proliferation of weapons of mass destruction and long-range missles poses to international peace and security."
what part of this is hard to understand? resolution 1441 recalls that the authorization for the use of force by Member States (hello? that means the U.S.A.) already exists!! 1441 states right up front that Saddam was in violation of previous resolutions. Do you think this was put in here by mistake, or that it really doesn't mean this? Come on, this is exactly why the U.S. agreed to "softening" of the language..the authorization for military intervention already existed...
want to read resolution 660 or 678?
here they are
here's some of the more uninformed posts i'm talking about:
It's up to the U.N. to enforce their own resolutions, not the member countries to do so on their own.
no one intended 1441 or any other UN resolution to authorize war in Iraq.
the only way to see that UN authorized the war was that by failing to comply with UN resolutions Saddam would be breaking the original ceasefire, but I'm not entirely sure about that one.
again i ask, doesn't anybody actually read the source material?