- Jun 28, 2002
- 2,184
- 0
- 0
Why is a theeousand * a meelion = a meelion * a theeousand?
Because a theeousand * a meelion is Abelian!!!!!11one
Because a theeousand * a meelion is Abelian!!!!!11one
Originally posted by: KLin
I don't think I've ever seen a more worthless thread than this one.
Originally posted by: Orsorum
Bwahaha, nice.
<--- did some sort of research w/Abelian groups a while ago.
Originally posted by: GideonX
:thumbsdown:
Originally posted by: franguinho
Originally posted by: GideonX
:thumbsdown:
a meelion of these couldnt do this justice... :thumbsdown:
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
That is as lame as the Sacramento Kings![]()
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
That is as lame as the Sacramento Kings![]()
Oh you did not just go there
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
That is as lame as the Sacramento Kings![]()
Oh you did not just go there
Originally posted by: jo1
Why do you rarely find mathematicians spending time at the beach?
Because they have sine and cosine to get a tan.
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
That is as lame as the Sacramento Kings![]()
Oh you did not just go there
*snap snap* Oh I just did!
Originally posted by: Stojakapimp
Originally posted by: RagingBITCH
That is as lame as the Sacramento Kings![]()
Oh you did not just go there