Courts have generally agreed for quite some time now (ie, since shortly after reconstruction) that despite the bill of rights initially only really applying to the federal government, the 14th extends the bill of rights to the state governments (and any powers they delegate, ie, municipal areas). I'm not quite sure what there is (if anything) to debate about this.
Also note, the 2nd reads "shall not be infringed", not "shall not be infringed by the federal government". Of course, with the 14th, this is now irrelevant.