YAMathT: Need a small understanding for antiderivatives...

Ricemarine

Lifer
Sep 10, 2004
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f(x) = x^1/3 (or the third root whatever, don't know terminology) + (5 / x^6)...

So when I found the anti derivative...

F(x) = (x^4/3)/(4/3) + (5x^-5 + C).

F(x) = 3/4 x ^(4/3) - x^-5 + C...

The Answer should be.
F(x) = 3/4 x^(3/4) - x^(-5) + C(sub1) if x < 0.
F(x) = 3/4 x^(3/4) - x^(-5) + C(sub2) if x > 0.


How did they come to this resolution?. Seriously, integrals are a PITA...
Thanks for your help if you do help :).
 

HaxorNubcake

Golden Member
Jun 23, 2004
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Um I get

(3/4)x^(4/3)-x^(-5)+Cx (same answer)

So...I conclude that the provided solution is wrong
 

randumb

Platinum Member
Mar 27, 2003
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Originally posted by: Ricemarine
Originally posted by: randumb
Originally posted by: Ricemarine

Hmm... typo in the book I guess... Thx.

No. The book is right. The reason you have two different constants is because of the discontinuity at 0.

But why is it 3/4 x^3/4? and not 3/4 x^4/3.

Oh. Sorry, that is a typo. I skimmed over and assumed it was the same. :eek:

But there should be two constants.
 
Jun 14, 2003
10,442
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why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.

whats wrong with the word integral.

also im a bit rusty on integration, but why is it Cx?

wouldnt it just be C? since there was no C in the starting equation, and you add a constant to any integral thats done without limits

or is it just the way you guys write it.

EDIT: oh hang on, you had a C in the one you sent to that mathematica place, but the OP has no C in his, unless he edited out. sorry lol!
 

Ricemarine

Lifer
Sep 10, 2004
10,507
0
0
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.

whats wrong with the word integral.

also im a bit rusty on integration, but why is it Cx?

wouldnt it just be C? since there was no C in the starting equation, and you add a constant to any integral thats done without limits

or is it just the way you guys write it.

EDIT: oh hang on, you had a C in the one you sent to that mathematica place, but the OP has no C in his, unless he edited out. sorry lol!

Actually. I didn't edit mine, he just added an extra C in the original formula... But um yeah... I guess the book made a mistake if no one else can solve it :confused:
 

jman19

Lifer
Nov 3, 2000
11,225
664
126
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.

whats wrong with the word integral.

Anti-derivative is just another name for an indefinate integral.
 

Safeway

Lifer
Jun 22, 2004
12,075
11
81
Originally posted by: jman19
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.
whats wrong with the word integral.

Anti-derivative is just another name for an indefinate integral.

QFT. What's wrong with calling something an integral?
 

jman19

Lifer
Nov 3, 2000
11,225
664
126
Originally posted by: Safeway
Originally posted by: jman19
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.
whats wrong with the word integral.

Anti-derivative is just another name for an indefinate integral.

QFT. What's wrong with calling something an integral?

For students who began their calculus education with derivatives, calling indefinite integrals anti-derivatives is perhaps an easier way to understand the process of integration.
 

VTHodge

Golden Member
Aug 3, 2001
1,575
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Originally posted by: Safeway
Originally posted by: jman19
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.
whats wrong with the word integral.
Anti-derivative is just another name for an indefinate integral.
QFT. What's wrong with calling something an integral?
The way I remember it is that Newton used one term and Leibniz used the other. Of course now I can't find any reference to back that up.

Also, your exponent is correct, but the piecewise answer is important to cover the discontinuity at zero (I know I'm just agreeing with others here).
 

Safeway

Lifer
Jun 22, 2004
12,075
11
81
Originally posted by: VTHodge
Originally posted by: Safeway
Originally posted by: jman19
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.
whats wrong with the word integral.

Anti-derivative is just another name for an indefinate integral.

QFT. What's wrong with calling something an integral?

The way I remember it is that Newton used one term and Leibniz used the other. Of course now I can't find any reference to back that up.

From middle school to graduate school, the only term used in my education has been integral. When we were first taught about integrals, the term anti-derivative was used once to get the point across.
 

Matthias99

Diamond Member
Oct 7, 2003
8,808
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Originally posted by: Safeway
From middle school to graduate school, the only term used in my education has been integral. When we were first taught about integrals, the term anti-derivative was used once to get the point across.

I got both sort of interchangeably from different sources.

As for reasoning: It's shorter to say 'anti-derivative' than 'indefinite integral'? And just using 'integral' is less specific, since you're not specifying whether it's over the entire function range or just part of it.
 

HaxorNubcake

Golden Member
Jun 23, 2004
1,983
0
0
Originally posted by: Ricemarine
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.

whats wrong with the word integral.

also im a bit rusty on integration, but why is it Cx?

wouldnt it just be C? since there was no C in the starting equation, and you add a constant to any integral thats done without limits

or is it just the way you guys write it.

EDIT: oh hang on, you had a C in the one you sent to that mathematica place, but the OP has no C in his, unless he edited out. sorry lol!

Actually. I didn't edit mine, he just added an extra C in the original formula... But um yeah... I guess the book made a mistake if no one else can solve it :confused:

Oops :) Oh well, as long as you figured it out
 

Ricemarine

Lifer
Sep 10, 2004
10,507
0
0
Originally posted by: HaxorNubcake
Originally posted by: Ricemarine
Originally posted by: otispunkmeyer
why on earth do you call it the anti-derivative.

whats wrong with the word integral.

also im a bit rusty on integration, but why is it Cx?

wouldnt it just be C? since there was no C in the starting equation, and you add a constant to any integral thats done without limits

or is it just the way you guys write it.

EDIT: oh hang on, you had a C in the one you sent to that mathematica place, but the OP has no C in his, unless he edited out. sorry lol!

Actually. I didn't edit mine, he just added an extra C in the original formula... But um yeah... I guess the book made a mistake if no one else can solve it :confused:

Oops :) Oh well, as long as you figured it out

Yeap, thanks for your help haxornubcake :).
 

silverpig

Lifer
Jul 29, 2001
27,703
12
81
I always use anti-derivative to mean the function, and integral to mean a value.

So I guess I use anti-derivative - indefinite integral interchangably, and integral - definite integral interchangably.