Originally posted by: SXMP
Hmm, yeah L'hopital's rule does work. I didn't notice it though because *supposedly* we are supposed to be able to solve this problem with the sinx/x=1 identity.
Can you think of anyway to solve it that way. (BTW I've already taken Calc, I'm just retaking it in college and want to be able to do the problems on the quiz the way they showed us so far... because *technically* I'm not supposed to know L'hopital's rule
Originally posted by: aux
Originally posted by: SXMP
Hmm, yeah L'hopital's rule does work. I didn't notice it though because *supposedly* we are supposed to be able to solve this problem with the sinx/x=1 identity.
Can you think of anyway to solve it that way. (BTW I've already taken Calc, I'm just retaking it in college and want to be able to do the problems on the quiz the way they showed us so far... because *technically* I'm not supposed to know L'hopital's rule
sin(x)/x != 1
sin(x)/x -> 1 when x-> 0
about your problem: knowing that sin(x)/x -> 1 when x->0 is enough because cos(0) = 1, so there is no problem with the cos at 0 (i.e. no division by 0).
