Originally posted by: Fencer128
Who is more guilty - the man who kills, or than man who knew it could happen and allowed for it?
Aren't we argueing semantics?
Andy
Originally posted by: Alistar7
Originally posted by: Fencer128
Who is more guilty - the man who kills, or than man who knew it could happen and allowed for it?
Aren't we argueing semantics?
Andy
"allowed" for it? Let's put you in an Iraqi's shoes 2 months ago. You see your friend be taken away by the secret police or feyadeen, you, knowing he might be killed still do nothing. Is your inaction a blanket approval or merely a self defense mechanism?
I will say that the person who has the intent to kill is far more guilty. However once they (Saddam) have committed so many atrocious acts, those that HAVE the power have a moral duty to do something.
Originally posted by: Corn
no, because sharon was responsible.
So, essentially what you are saying is that even though Sharon had no direct control over the murderers and that they acted on their own accord, simply because he didn't prevent the murders from happening, the murderers are not responsible, but Sharon is, right?
I expect the chief of police in say, Detroit, to be tried and held responsible for murder. It is a known fact that murder is going to happen, possibly even this very second, but since it is not being prevented, he is responsible and should be tried as a murderer, and the real murderer is not responsible.![]()
Originally posted by: Alistar7
Originally posted by: Fencer128
Who is more guilty - the man who kills, or than man who knew it could happen and allowed for it?
Aren't we argueing semantics?
Andy
"allowed" for it? Let's put you in an Iraqi's shoes 2 months ago. You see your friend be taken away by the secret police or feyadeen, you, knowing he might be killed still do nothing. Is your inaction a blanket approval or merely a self defense mechanism?
I will say that the person who has the intent to kill is far more guilty. However once they (Saddam) have committed so many atrocious acts, those that HAVE the power have a moral duty to do something.
Originally posted by: csiro
Sharon will never be put on trial. If he was, Arafat should be as well and we all know that that'll never happen. IMO though, they both should on there.
Originally posted by: Fencer128
I'm not completely sure on this - so feel free to correct me, but is the ICC not some way of indicting/prosecuting citizens of one country by a set of laws possibly other than their own?
For instance - if a citizen of country A committed a serious crime against a citizen(s) of country B and then fled to coutry A, country B could indict them at the ICC regardless of whether country A had a cordial relationship with B (and so would consider extradition) or not. Let us consider the examples of the US and Iran for instance. IMHO the US would probably never consider sending someone the Iranians considered a war criminal (for instance) to Iran - regardless of whether this allegation may be true or not. But, if Iran indicted him at the ICC he could be given a fair trial rather than possibly escape justice because of international emnity.
Is this the case? If so I can only see the reason the US would not want to participate as either:
They don't trust the court system
or
They don't want to allow potential criminals to be tried by people/countries they do not pick themselves.
I would have thought that was the real motiviation. For it to work the ICC should behave like any other court - the standard of admissable evidence and fairness of rulings and sentencing should reflect this.
Cheers,
Andy
Originally posted by: freegeeks
huh? what does Vandamme have to do with your court system?
nothing at all.
Personally I think it's funny that you are bashing our court system and the same time you have a sigh from a Belgian retard. You obviously care what he thinks
whatever floats your boat I guess
