Kyteland
Diamond Member
So I wrote this "proof" up on my board at work showing that 1=-1. It is a classic math fallacy, but it looks good. The trick is knowing which step the fallacy is in.
I told someone where it was (when you say sqrt(x/y) = sqrt(x)/sqrt(y)) and explained why, but they said "no it is where you claim i^2 = -1." I laughed at him but then realized I didn't know how to explain it to him. It's just a symbol with that property.
My calculus book has this:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/i.html also lists it as a definition.
Anyone have a better way to explain it, or some kind of proof? Although I have no idea how you would prove it, since it is a basic definition. Kind of like rigorously prove (-1)*(-1) = 1.
I told someone where it was (when you say sqrt(x/y) = sqrt(x)/sqrt(y)) and explained why, but they said "no it is where you claim i^2 = -1." I laughed at him but then realized I didn't know how to explain it to him. It's just a symbol with that property.
My calculus book has this:
A complex number can be represented by an expression of the form a+b*i, where a and b are real numbers and i is a symbol with the property that i^2 = -1
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/i.html also lists it as a definition.
Anyone have a better way to explain it, or some kind of proof? Although I have no idea how you would prove it, since it is a basic definition. Kind of like rigorously prove (-1)*(-1) = 1.