manimal
Lifer
- Mar 30, 2007
- 13,559
- 8
- 0
My problem with this line of reasoning is two-fold.
First, current insurance providers don't provide interstate health insurance, so they're not included in the commerce clause.
Second, the government seems to be circumventing this by mandating that everyone be forced to buy health insurance, and that health insurance companies be forced to sell it to everyone.
The first is certainly unconstitutional without the second. The case has to be whether or not the US Gov't has the authority to mandate everyone to buy a private good. At that point, it becomes a case for the commerce clause.
All this is beside the point, though, because there is no "healthcare reform" of any kind in the bill. It doesn't fix any of the problems, and it doesn't provide health care to any more people that currently receive it.
My question is can the mandate's fine be seen as a tax? If it can be interpreted as a tax then the mandate is legal.
