Why hasn't Congress repealed anything since Jefferson was President?

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Anarchist420

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Feb 13, 2010
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As much as I hate the executive power and the Supreme Court, they're the only ones that have ended or stopped every single bad piece of legislation after Jefferson was President.

George Clinton dealt the fatal blow to the FBUS.
Jackson vetoed the 2nd Central Bank.
The Supreme Court struck down centralist DOMA and an anti-picketing legislation that only 3 members of Congress voted no on (Dr. Paul was one of the three).
The executive power is going to reduce taxes on same sex couples.
Grover Cleveland put a halt to the rape of Hawaii.
Coolidge and Harding didn't enforce regs as much as Congress wanted them to.
Coolidge asked the Federal Reserve Board not to make such shitty decisions (they did anyway though).
Hoover secured good relations with Japan.
Bill Clinton shut the govt down in 1995.
Chief Justice Taney nearly got his own ass arrested trying to reduce Lincoln's power when Congress wouldn't.
Obama hasn't been restrained by Congress.

About the only thing I can think of that was stopped by Congress was the Treaty of Versailles which was almost 100 years ago. So in the past 204 years, that was the only thing Congress stopped. One could argue SOPA and PIPA were stopped by Congress, but another could just as well argue that they were really just stronger versions of what we already had.

Of course, the executive power and supreme court also gave us some of the worst things... doesn't that mean that there is no peoples' branch of govt (nor a States' branch of govt) and that there never was (at least not since Jefferson was President)?
 

waggy

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The main job it seems congress has it is to gain more power. Once they have it they are reluctant to give it up. Though on rare cases they do. usually if they feel it will give them more power down the road.

it seems each president is taking more power. even if they take it from other branches..
 

Anarchist420

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Probably because of the 17th Amendment
I don't think the 17th Amendment makes much of a difference because even without it, 1/2 of any States may overrule the other 1/2 of the States. I understand that treaties, vetoes, and removal from office take 2/3 but treaties are usually just executive agreements these days and can be passed by a simply majority. NAFTA should've required 2/3 of the Senate, but there is nothing the Constitution itself can do to force a 2/3 vote in the Senate.

Honest question... Why do you think the 17th amendment makes a difference?:)
 
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