Which sentence is more grammatically correct?

Spooner

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Jan 16, 2000
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I try "to not use them more than once."
or
I try "not to use them more than once."
 

Tom

Lifer
Oct 9, 1999
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condoms ?


btw neither is more correct, they say different things.

not trying is not the same as trying not to.
 

mzkhadir

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Mar 6, 2003
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Originally posted by: Spooner
I try "to not use them more than once."
or
I try "not to use them more than once."

I will try not to use them more than once.
 
Jun 4, 2005
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Originally posted by: mzkhadir
Originally posted by: Spooner
I try "to not use them more than once."
or
I try "not to use them more than once."

I will try not to use them more than once.

Absolutely wrong. That changes the whole meaning of the sentence.
 

Perknose

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Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

 

Turin39789

Lifer
Nov 21, 2000
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Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

However no one really cares about the split infitive anymore, but that is why it sounds nicer.
 

SVT Cobra

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Mar 29, 2005
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Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

Absolutely correct. I wish I learned that in my English class though and not my Spanish class.
 
Jun 4, 2005
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Originally posted by: F22 Raptor
Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

Absolutely correct. I wish I learned that in my English class though and not my Spanish class.

I wouldn't worry about it. I didn't even know about that rule, and I want to be an English teacher. :confused: However, I went to a French grade school/high school, so I have an excuse. :laugh:
 

Perknose

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Originally posted by: Turin39789
Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

However no one really cares about the split infitive anymore, but that is why it sounds nicer.
^^^^^ Which is why YOU, and literally hundreds of millions of English speakers world-wide, DO care. ;)

 

Perknose

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Originally posted by: F22 Raptor
Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

Absolutely correct. I wish I learned that in my English class though and not my Spanish class.
No lie! I learned more English grammar in HS French class than I ever learned in HS English class! :D

 

Perknose

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Originally posted by: LoKe
You mean that guy with terrible English, who isn't even human? :confused:
Why even bring our President into this? :shocked:

 

mordantmonkey

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Dec 23, 2004
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Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Turin39789
Originally posted by: Perknose
Originally posted by: Iron Addict
second one
And I'll even tell you why! The second does NOT split the infinitive verb "to use".

However no one really cares about the split infitive anymore, but that is why it sounds nicer.
^^^^^ Which is why YOU, and literally hundreds of millions of English speakers world-wide, DO care. ;)

Didn't some institution determine that splitting the infinitive was no longer grammatically incorrect?
 

fire400

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Nov 21, 2005
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i was correcting this college music student on starcraft, and he accused me of being an english teacher.

i was like, no, but I do plan on becoming a writer, even if my grammar sucks on the Internet.

2nd one makes more sense, even if you don't have a very strong background in the equations of english or literature.