Was the Declaration of Independence majoritarian or individualistic?

Status
Not open for further replies.

Anarchist420

Diamond Member
Feb 13, 2010
8,645
0
76
www.facebook.com
I always wondered whether Thomas Jefferson meant consent of the governed was to be unanimous, or if a revolution was only justified if it was majoritarian.

He was a "thorough whig and democrat", after all.
 

Steeplerot

Lifer
Mar 29, 2004
13,051
6
81
The revolution itself was not on the consent of the majority. Jefferson and friends were the big landowners and corporate elites trying to make a place for their fellow elites to be safe to exploit native americans, slave labor and rape the land from coast to coast for the big $$$ without the British's less intrusive form of colonialism. The majority of folks wanted no part.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

JEDIYoda

Lifer
Jul 13, 2005
33,986
3,321
126
I always wondered whether Thomas Jefferson meant consent of the governed was to be unanimous, or if a revolution was only justified if it was majoritarian.

He was a "thorough whig and democrat", after all.


hahahahaaaaa...there is no way you can get this classy comedy anywhere else.......rofl..hahaaaa
 

PeshakJang

Platinum Member
Mar 17, 2010
2,276
0
0
It's fun being able to track the progress of Anarchist's high school American history class.
 

MovingTarget

Diamond Member
Jun 22, 2003
9,002
115
106
Perhaps the question should not be phrased as binary. The world does not work that way.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.