Verizon mobile to mobile

L337Llama

Senior member
Mar 30, 2003
358
0
0
A friend and I have Verizon wireless. I'm trying to figure out something with the 80 million customer thing. Advertisements and such mention you get unlimited calling to anybody on Verizon. I'm trying to figure out if I make the call, will the other person be charged any minutes? When trying t find the answer, sometimes I'll see that only the person making the out going call isn't charged, while the person receiving the call will have it deducted from their minutes. And Verizon's own site is a pain to find out anything from. Other times, I've read it being if both person are on Verizon, then neither is charged against thier anytime minutes. And I'm wondering this specifially as it applies to cell phones, not land lines.

Thanks.
moved to the phone forum from OT -DrPizza
 

isekii

Lifer
Mar 16, 2001
28,578
3
81
most if not all verizon plans now have unlimited mobile to mobile so the other person shouldn't be charged.
if that person has some grandfathered plan that doesn't include mobile to mobile minutes then it'll use regular airtime.
 

maziwanka

Lifer
Jul 4, 2000
10,415
1
0
Originally posted by: Demon-Xanth
If both of you have verizon and mobile to mobile, neither gets charged.

yep. trust me, this is a major plus since most of my friends and my gf are on verizon. i can't remember the last time i actually went over my minutes.
 

hanoverphist

Diamond Member
Dec 7, 2006
9,867
23
76
the bill separates the "in" minutes from plan minutes as well. mine is very heavily weighted on the "in" side, i probably use twice my plan limit easily calling verizon mobile numbers.
 

civic2004

Junior Member
Jul 14, 2009
11
0
0
True... I used to have Verizon mobile-to-mobile on plan. There is a trick though... for example person a is talking to person b.

Person A: Has mobile to mobile on plan.
Person B: Doesn't have mobile to mobile on plan

If Person A and Person B talk during day time, Person A will not have to pay for the call but Person B will be using minutes from the plan.

 

sswingle

Diamond Member
Mar 2, 2000
7,183
45
91
Originally posted by: civic2004
True... I used to have Verizon mobile-to-mobile on plan. There is a trick though... for example person a is talking to person b.

Person A: Has mobile to mobile on plan.
Person B: Doesn't have mobile to mobile on plan

If Person A and Person B talk during day time, Person A will not have to pay for the call but Person B will be using minutes from the plan.

How is that a trick? Ever since cell phones were invented, the plans work very simply. In the history of cell phones, person A's plan has no effect on what person B pays and vice versa.

What next, will someone ask if they have free nights after 9 and they call someone on the west coast, is it still free because its not past 9 for them?
 

jersiq

Senior member
May 18, 2005
887
1
0
Originally posted by: sswingle
Originally posted by: civic2004
True... I used to have Verizon mobile-to-mobile on plan. There is a trick though... for example person a is talking to person b.

Person A: Has mobile to mobile on plan.
Person B: Doesn't have mobile to mobile on plan

If Person A and Person B talk during day time, Person A will not have to pay for the call but Person B will be using minutes from the plan.

How is that a trick? Ever since cell phones were invented, the plans work very simply. In the history of cell phones, person A's plan has no effect on what person B pays and vice versa.

What next, will someone ask if they have free nights after 9 and they call someone on the west coast, is it still free because its not past 9 for them?

Not to nitpick, but that's not true. The standard outside of the US is "Calling Party Pays" which is different than "Called Party Pays"
 

Demon-Xanth

Lifer
Feb 15, 2000
20,551
2
81
Landlines used to be exclusively "Calling party pays", but when cell phones were implemented, they decided to double the profit points. Initially it was so someone doesn't use up all the airwaves receiving 100,000 calls from land lines, but now it's just "why would we (as companies) want to do that?"
 

sswingle

Diamond Member
Mar 2, 2000
7,183
45
91
Originally posted by: jersiq
Originally posted by: sswingle
Originally posted by: civic2004
True... I used to have Verizon mobile-to-mobile on plan. There is a trick though... for example person a is talking to person b.

Person A: Has mobile to mobile on plan.
Person B: Doesn't have mobile to mobile on plan

If Person A and Person B talk during day time, Person A will not have to pay for the call but Person B will be using minutes from the plan.

How is that a trick? Ever since cell phones were invented, the plans work very simply. In the history of cell phones, person A's plan has no effect on what person B pays and vice versa.

What next, will someone ask if they have free nights after 9 and they call someone on the west coast, is it still free because its not past 9 for them?

Not to nitpick, but that's not true. The standard outside of the US is "Calling Party Pays" which is different than "Called Party Pays"

Not to nitpick, but since the OP and everyone that replied (with the exception of you) is from the US, my statement is still valid.
 

jersiq

Senior member
May 18, 2005
887
1
0
Originally posted by: sswingle
Originally posted by: jersiq
Originally posted by: sswingle
Originally posted by: civic2004
True... I used to have Verizon mobile-to-mobile on plan. There is a trick though... for example person a is talking to person b.

Person A: Has mobile to mobile on plan.
Person B: Doesn't have mobile to mobile on plan

If Person A and Person B talk during day time, Person A will not have to pay for the call but Person B will be using minutes from the plan.

How is that a trick? Ever since cell phones were invented, the plans work very simply. In the history of cell phones, person A's plan has no effect on what person B pays and vice versa.

What next, will someone ask if they have free nights after 9 and they call someone on the west coast, is it still free because its not past 9 for them?

Not to nitpick, but that's not true. The standard outside of the US is "Calling Party Pays" which is different than "Called Party Pays"

Not to nitpick, but since the OP and everyone that replied (with the exception of you) is from the US, my statement is still valid.

*golfclap*