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Tricky math problem

Mark R

Diamond Member
a) How many times must you flip a coin so that you have at least a 50% chance of tossing at least 1 head and 1 tail?

b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have at least a 50% chance of throwing at least one of each value?
 
Originally posted by: Mark R
a) How many times must you flip a coin so that you have an evens chance of tossing at least 1 head and 1 tail?

b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have an evens chance of throwing at least one of each value?


2 and 6?

Just an instant guess without thinking and the way the problem is worded.
 
Once for both cases.

On the first coin toss, getting a heads or tails is 50%. Condition satisfied.

On the first roll, there is a 1/6 chance of getting a unique value of the die. Condition satisfied.
 
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Once for both cases.

On the first coin toss, getting a heads or tails is 50%. Condition satisfied.

On the first roll, there is a 1/6 chance of getting a unique value of the die. Condition satisfied.


b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have an evens chance of throwing at least one of each value?

at least one of each value, so that would have to be 6 times
 
Originally posted by: Frosty3799
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Once for both cases.

On the first coin toss, getting a heads or tails is 50%. Condition satisfied.

On the first roll, there is a 1/6 chance of getting a unique value of the die. Condition satisfied.


b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have an evens chance of throwing at least one of each value?

at least one of each value, so that would have to be 6 times

It doesn't matter how many times you throw the die, the chances of at least one of each value is always even.
 
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Originally posted by: Frosty3799
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Once for both cases.

On the first coin toss, getting a heads or tails is 50%. Condition satisfied.

On the first roll, there is a 1/6 chance of getting a unique value of the die. Condition satisfied.


b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have an evens chance of throwing at least one of each value?

at least one of each value, so that would have to be 6 times

It doesn't matter how many times you throw the die, the chances of at least one of each value is always even.

Unless you throw the die at least 6 times, you have a 0% chance of trowing at least one of each value. THINK!

Same with the coin. At least one head AND one tail. You can't do that without flipping it at least twice.
 
Flipping the coin - twice.

If you flip it two times you have the following possibilities:
HH
HT
TH
TT

50% of those have one head and one tail.

The die I believe is higher than 6. Just a quick sanity check tells me that if you roll the die 6 times, odds are you won't roll one of each number.
 
a) s double dot angle n = s angle (n+1) - 1
b) s (x) = e ^ (-m ((c^x) - 1))

Oh. Wait.

(For David, in case he's reading AND has been paying attention)
 
Wow, I'm tempted to, but I *really* hate these types of problems. (and probability in general)
I hate probability problems.

(in case this is a homework assignment, I'm not giving away the answer, just a suggested path.)
Obviously, it has to be at least 6 rolls of the die.
After 6 rolls, what's the probability that at least 2 of the rolls came up the same?
After 7 rolls, what's the probability that at least 2 of the rolls came up the same?
-once you get 50% (or the closest number less than 50%) you have your answer.

A very similar problem, with the solution published in many places is "how many people in a room do you need to have before there is a 50% probability that 2 of them have the same birthday."

 
Originally posted by: mugs
Flipping the coin - twice.

If you flip it two times you have the following possibilities:
HH
HT
TH
TT

50% of those have one head and one tail.

The die I believe is higher than 6. Just a quick sanity check tells me that if you roll the die 6 times, odds are you won't roll one of each number.

Well, since you're coin probability is basically 2^2, the dice would be 6^6, which is 46,656? :Q
 
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Originally posted by: Frosty3799
Originally posted by: Atomicus
Once for both cases.

On the first coin toss, getting a heads or tails is 50%. Condition satisfied.

On the first roll, there is a 1/6 chance of getting a unique value of the die. Condition satisfied.


b)How many times must you throw a normal gaming die (six sided) so that you have an evens chance of throwing at least one of each value?

at least one of each value, so that would have to be 6 times

It doesn't matter how many times you throw the die, the chances of at least one of each value is always even.

Try to quit while you're ahead 😛
 
Originally posted by: logic1485
Originally posted by: mugs
Flipping the coin - twice.

If you flip it two times you have the following possibilities:
HH
HT
TH
TT

50% of those have one head and one tail.

The die I believe is higher than 6. Just a quick sanity check tells me that if you roll the die 6 times, odds are you won't roll one of each number.

Well, since you're coin probability is basically 2^2, the dice would be 6^6, which is 46,656? :Q

Probability has to be a number between 0 and 1. 😉

-Tom
 
Originally posted by: Soccer55
Originally posted by: logic1485
Originally posted by: mugs
Flipping the coin - twice.

If you flip it two times you have the following possibilities:
HH
HT
TH
TT

50% of those have one head and one tail.

The die I believe is higher than 6. Just a quick sanity check tells me that if you roll the die 6 times, odds are you won't roll one of each number.

Well, since you're coin probability is basically 2^2, the dice would be 6^6, which is 46,656? :Q

Probability has to be a number between 0 and 1. 😉

-Tom

a) 2^2 is not between 0-1
b) The question is not asking for a probability.

Unless you were kidding, in which case disregard the above.
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: Soccer55
Originally posted by: logic1485
Originally posted by: mugs
Flipping the coin - twice.

If you flip it two times you have the following possibilities:
HH
HT
TH
TT

50% of those have one head and one tail.

The die I believe is higher than 6. Just a quick sanity check tells me that if you roll the die 6 times, odds are you won't roll one of each number.

Well, since you're coin probability is basically 2^2, the dice would be 6^6, which is 46,656? :Q

Probability has to be a number between 0 and 1. 😉

-Tom

a) 2^2 is not between 0-1
b) The question is not asking for a probability.

Unless you were kidding, in which case disregard the above.

I was not kidding. He said that the coin probability is 2^2. 4 is not a possible value for a probability. Though while typing up this response, I think I understand what logic1485 meant with that post (which wasn't clear the first time I read it). He meant that it would take 2^2 times to get the probability to be at least 50%. I read it as the probability is 2^2 which clearly is not allowed. My bad.

-Tom
 
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Wow, I'm tempted to, but I *really* hate these types of problems. (and probability in general)
I hate probability problems.

(in case this is a homework assignment, I'm not giving away the answer, just a suggested path.)
Obviously, it has to be at least 6 rolls of the die.
After 6 rolls, what's the probability that at least 2 of the rolls came up the same?
After 7 rolls, what's the probability that at least 2 of the rolls came up the same?
-once you get 50% (or the closest number less than 50%) you have your answer.

I can see why you hate these problems. 😉 After 7 rolls, the probability that at least 2 of the rolls came up the same is always 100%.

The situation you described is the opposite of the situation the OP describes only for the case where the number of rolls is 6.
 
Originally posted by: Soccer55
I was not kidding. He said that the coin probability is 2^2. 4 is not a possible value for a probability. Though while typing up this response, I think I understand what logic1485 meant with that post (which wasn't clear the first time I read it). He meant that it would take 2^2 times to get the probability to be at least 50%. I read it as the probability is 2^2 which clearly is not allowed. My bad.

-Tom

The question asks "how many times must you flip a coin..." and "how many times must you throw a die...", not "what is the probability that blah blah blah..." or something happening. Therefore the answer is an integer, not a percentage or a probability or something occuring.
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: Soccer55
I was not kidding. He said that the coin probability is 2^2. 4 is not a possible value for a probability. Though while typing up this response, I think I understand what logic1485 meant with that post (which wasn't clear the first time I read it). He meant that it would take 2^2 times to get the probability to be at least 50%. I read it as the probability is 2^2 which clearly is not allowed. My bad.

-Tom

The question asks "how many times must you flip a coin..." and "how many times must you throw a die...", not "what is the probability that blah blah blah..." or something happening. Therefore the answer is an integer, not a percentage or a probability or something occuring.

I understand that.....but he said "coin probability". It was unclear to me and I read that as "the probability is 2^2". So I just pointed out (with a 😉 no less) that with a value of 4 he couldn't possibly be talking about a probability. Again, my bad.

-Tom
 
There is no (simple) scientific way to solve the second problem. You must use a guess and check method.

If you roll the die six times, the event that you get one of each side would be you rolling each side on each of the six turns, i.e. starting with a 5, then a 4, then a 6, then 2, 3, and 1.

The probability of that is 1 * 5/6 * 4/6 * 3/6 * 2/6 * 1/6..since it doesn't matter what the first die you roll is, and in the second roll you have 5 choices out of 6 to go, then you have 4 values that haven't been rolled yet, etc.. Equivalently that is 5!/6^5 = 6!/6^6 (a pair of 6's cancel out)

The prob of that is 0.015. What we want though is a probability that is >= 50%. It is clearly a lot more than 6.

Let's roll it 7 times then. Then to get one of each value you have to get 6 specific rolls, while the 7th roll is irrelevant. So, you can roll a 6, 5, 2, 1, 6, 3, 4. Try to figure out probability of that.
 
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