I have the following question from a problem set of mine.
Clicky
I found the impedances looking into the open and the shorted segments (Z1 and Z2 as indicated in red) and found them to be:
jZ0Bd and Z0/jBd.
This seems go suggest that you have an inductor in series with a capacitor.
However, when I add them up to find the equivalent impedance:
Z1 + Z2 = Z0(jBd + 1/jBd) = Z0(-(Bd)^2 + 1)/jBd.
However, using the approximation, we find that -(Bd)^2 + 1 approx.= 1
=> Ztotal = Z0/jBd
When you look at part two of the question, they ask you for an expression for the resonant frequency. This seems to suggest that you cannot make the approximation to get rid of the inductor.
Any ideas?
Thanks in advance.
<Obligatory> Do your own homework </Obligatory>
Edit:
<Obligatory> Head explodes </Obligatory>
Clicky
I found the impedances looking into the open and the shorted segments (Z1 and Z2 as indicated in red) and found them to be:
jZ0Bd and Z0/jBd.
This seems go suggest that you have an inductor in series with a capacitor.
However, when I add them up to find the equivalent impedance:
Z1 + Z2 = Z0(jBd + 1/jBd) = Z0(-(Bd)^2 + 1)/jBd.
However, using the approximation, we find that -(Bd)^2 + 1 approx.= 1
=> Ztotal = Z0/jBd
When you look at part two of the question, they ask you for an expression for the resonant frequency. This seems to suggest that you cannot make the approximation to get rid of the inductor.
Any ideas?
Thanks in advance.
<Obligatory> Do your own homework </Obligatory>
Edit:
<Obligatory> Head explodes </Obligatory>