Would not Israel though have to prove for each "Palestinian" (in "" because there is no such people before '48) that owned land that in fact said "Palestinian" did in fact gamble and lose, and not flee the fighting?
If they can't prove that, then would not that land belong rightfully to the "Palestinian", and not Israel?
Example:
We're in effect being soft attacked by Mexico. If we militarily go across the border to F up these Mexican POS's that are creating havoc in Mexico and playing a large part in making Mexicans come here (not in total part, but, a large part), and the citizens flee while our military is rolling through...
...that land doesn't belong to the US. It still belongs to those Mexican's that owned it before.
So how precisely did Israel figure out for all these pieces of owned land that each of those owners conspired with Israel's enemies at the time?
Chuck
So you are in favor of giving a few states like California back to Mexico? What about most of the country that we jacked from the Native Americans at gunpoint? Wanna give all that back too or is there a certain time limit on spoils of war in your mind? If Israel can hold on to the land for another 50 years or so would you consider it non-stolen Israeli land?
