- Aug 10, 2001
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The 1922 mandate--which was adopted by the League of Nations (the precursor to the United Nations)--said that everything to the east of the Jordan River (which comprised 77-percent of historical Palestine) would be an Arab state, while everything to the west of the Jordan River (which comprised 23-percent of historical Palestine) would be a Jewish state. My question then is the following: Why, in 1947, did the UN partition the 23-percent of Palestine that was supposed to be a Jewish state? The partition was so hastily done that the Arab and the Jewish states crossed over each other.
EDIT: And the 23-percent of Palestine that was supposed to be a Jewish state was, by all accounts, sparsely populated until the early Zionist settlers cultivated and developed the land in the late 1800's. There are many authors who wrote first hand accounts of how desolate and uninhabited the "Holy Land" was in the 1800's.
EDIT: And the 23-percent of Palestine that was supposed to be a Jewish state was, by all accounts, sparsely populated until the early Zionist settlers cultivated and developed the land in the late 1800's. There are many authors who wrote first hand accounts of how desolate and uninhabited the "Holy Land" was in the 1800's.
