JackSpadesSI
Senior member
I'm trying to make a point about the "Texas sharpshooter fallacy" to someone by using visual aids. My thought was to tell them that I could perform a feat, before their very eyes, with the odds of 1 in *insert crazy number here*. I would then pull out a deck of cards, shuffle them well, and then lay them out on a table in a straight line (it wouldn't matter to me, in the slightest, in what order the cards wound up being laid down).
I'd then let them know that the odds of laying out that EXACT sequence was truly 1 in *that same crazy number*. Clearly unimpressed at this point, I'd then remind them that's why this is a fallacy - you can't take an event which has already happened and marvel at its supposedly incredible odds when that event was never specifically predicted in the first place.
Anyway, I'm posting here because I'm having a brain fart and I wanted to check my math with you. Am I right that these are the odds for a specific sequence of cards?
(1/52)*(1/51)*(1/50)*...*(1/3)*(1/2)*(1/1)
I get 1 in 8*10^67 for that. Is that right?
I'd then let them know that the odds of laying out that EXACT sequence was truly 1 in *that same crazy number*. Clearly unimpressed at this point, I'd then remind them that's why this is a fallacy - you can't take an event which has already happened and marvel at its supposedly incredible odds when that event was never specifically predicted in the first place.
Anyway, I'm posting here because I'm having a brain fart and I wanted to check my math with you. Am I right that these are the odds for a specific sequence of cards?
(1/52)*(1/51)*(1/50)*...*(1/3)*(1/2)*(1/1)
I get 1 in 8*10^67 for that. Is that right?