Born2bwire
Diamond Member
- Oct 28, 2005
- 9,840
- 6
- 71
This is simple:
Read the statutes. No definition of lewd nor lascivious exist anywhere in the statutes, so what would happen is the judge or jury would open the dictionary:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lewd
Note:
There is your definition. Cohabitation without marriage is lascivious in and of itself.
Anyone else care to challenge this archaic ass law that use to read:
798.02 and 798.01 are most often used by husbands seeking divorce and wishing to avoid paying alimony to the wife who is now shacking up with another dude.
But that requires sexual intercourse for it to be lascivious and the latter states that they spend the night in the same room. If the OP and his fiance live in separate rooms and there isn't an open sexual relationship how is it lascivious? What is Florida's current legal precedent for a lewd and lascivious behaviour?
