TARP funds are being repaid. The gov't is making a profit. Yes, I said profit.

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miketheidiot

Lifer
Sep 3, 2004
11,060
1
0
Originally posted by: BoberFett
GS is making record profits right now. How are the rest of the TARP banks doing? Until it all comes back in, there's no profit.

Edit: And does this mean now that Bush was right?

on this issue he certainly was. bush did a pretty decent job his last 18 months or so, too bad the previous 78 were so bad.
 

miketheidiot

Lifer
Sep 3, 2004
11,060
1
0
Originally posted by: Budmantom
Anything over our initial "investment" in tarp is a profit.


If GS makes a $5 "profit" and Citibank loses $500 you don't have a $5 (unless you are a Democrat), you have a $495 loss.

nice made up numbers
 

miketheidiot

Lifer
Sep 3, 2004
11,060
1
0
Originally posted by: alphatarget1
If CIT had failed, we would've lost like 2-3 billion dollars in TARP funds.

cit woudl have just gotten funneled into some other bank and that bank would have repaid it
 

miketheidiot

Lifer
Sep 3, 2004
11,060
1
0
Originally posted by: smack Down
Originally posted by: DealMonkey
Looks like AIG is selling off assets in an effort to repay their bailout funds:

July 15 (Bloomberg) -- American International Group Inc., the insurer divesting assets to repay a federal bailout, has selected a New York exchange to list shares of one of its largest non-U.S. life units.

The plan to hold a public offering of American Life Insurance Co. would result in a new company with separate management, AIG said today in a statement. The company issued a similar statement in May for American International Assurance Co., a life unit AIG may take public in Asia.

AIG, which is selling assets to repay loans within a $182.5 billion U.S. bailout, has disclosed deals raising more than $6.7 billion. The New York-based company plans to hand over stakes in Alico and AIA to the Federal Reserve to reduce its central-bank debt by $25 billion as the recession erodes the value of insurance assets and makes financing costlier for potential buyers.

Alico operates in more than 50 countries, including parts of Europe, Latin America, the Caribbean, the Middle East and Japan. Japan is Alico?s biggest market.

http://www.bloomberg.com/apps/...01103&sid=a1.dAiSkfWoA

So it appears they could repay $6.7B + $25B in the near future.

No it is repaying 6.7 Billion and giving away assets that if we are lucky will only require a few billion for additional bailouts.

the bulk of aig is highly profitable, it was one little unit in one little office in london that lost them a quarter trillion dollars.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: alchemize
Originally posted by: heyheybooboo
Most likely we (being the taxpayers) are going to get stuck on part of TALF, and some folks will make out like bandits.

As I understand the first rounds in the Spring primarily dealt with credit card debt with the remainder in auto loans - don't know if they have started to deal with any 'toxic' MBS.
TALF is where we're being quietly robbed...

How?
 

heyheybooboo

Diamond Member
Jun 29, 2007
6,278
0
0
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: alchemize
Originally posted by: heyheybooboo
Most likely we (being the taxpayers) are going to get stuck on part of TALF, and some folks will make out like bandits.

As I understand the first rounds in the Spring primarily dealt with credit card debt with the remainder in auto loans - don't know if they have started to deal with any 'toxic' MBS.
TALF is where we're being quietly robbed...

How?

As I understand it (which is always questionable), though the 'bundles' of toxic assets may originate from the Fed only a portion of the 'risk' belongs to them - The FDIC and the Treasury Dept each have a piece, too.

The scenario seems oddly familiar - LOL. The assets will be bundled and the resulting securities will be 'rated'. Except this time the 'risk' is minimized by the Fed, FDIC and Treasury because they will guarantee a minimum value of the 'bundles'.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: heyheybooboo
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: alchemize
Originally posted by: heyheybooboo
Most likely we (being the taxpayers) are going to get stuck on part of TALF, and some folks will make out like bandits.

As I understand the first rounds in the Spring primarily dealt with credit card debt with the remainder in auto loans - don't know if they have started to deal with any 'toxic' MBS.
TALF is where we're being quietly robbed...

How?

As I understand it (which is always questionable), though the 'bundles' of toxic assets may originate from the Fed only a portion of the 'risk' belongs to them - The FDIC and the Treasury Dept each have a piece, too.

The scenario seems oddly familiar - LOL. The assets will be bundled and the resulting securities will be 'rated'. Except this time the 'risk' is minimized by the Fed, FDIC and Treasury because they will guarantee a minimum value of the 'bundles'.

AFAIK, you're thinking of another program. TALF, or (T)erm (A)sset (L)oan (F)acility, is a securitization funding facility which makes non-recourse secured loans to purchasers of newly issued AAA securitization bonds. The loan is secured by the bond, which MUST be currently rated AAA by the rating agencies, the servicer/seller MUST conform to TALF eligibility criteria.

The loan is NOT for the full par value of the bonds, there is a haircut applied, depending on the asset class. The last time I checked the lowest haircut is 6%, the highest is about 15%.

The AAA rating is applied to the bonds based upon far more conservative measurements than historical ABS bonds. Why? Because the rating agencies realize that they are teetering on the edge, any more fuckups and they are in major trouble, especially now.

The bonds themselves, being AAA rated bonds, already have very conservative "overcollateralization" (a haircut if you will). Thus, the Fed's loan is really a Super-Senior-AAA bond. The first loss piece is held by the Servicer/Seller, the second loss piece is held by the bond purchaser. For example, if a small ticket lease portfolio had a 20% overcollateralization and a haircut of 10%, then the Fed would be protected against 30%+ net loss on the portfolio.

The general affects of TALF have been very good. Non-TALF bonds have been massively aided by TALF efforts, as it has started the securitization engine again. Credit card bonds, which were going at LIBOR+500 during the worst parts of the crisis, were pricing at L+150 for TALF, and, for non-TALF issues now, they are pricing at L+100, or lower.

Overall, TALF has aided in the overall liquidity of the market, both for TALF issues and non-TALF issues.

It will, in all likelihood, not result in losses to the Fed. If some issues did have losses they will be few and usually not major losses.

 

tk149

Diamond Member
Apr 3, 2002
7,253
1
0
Originally posted by: LunarRay

<snip>

The Accounting bit was to simply indicate that what the company shows as a loss may be the loan interest expense recorded by that company which may be construed as income to the lender on the loans made by the Lender. You don't wait until the entire event is finalized to determine Profit or Loss on a particular 'loan'...

Thank you for clarifying, but I'm still not sure that I understand.

1. You're saying that you can determine profit or loss on each individual TARP "loan," as it pays off or defaults. Okay, that's fine. You can take a snapshot of the entire portfolio right now and say "Look, it's profitable because some of the loans have paid back with interest."

2. Alternatively, you are saying that a bank carries the TARP loan as a liability, and adds the interest on the loan to its liabilities on its books. The government can then carry the interest on the loan as an asset on the government's books. No actual money has changed hands, but you can see how much TARP has in profit or loss each month. Has this been done? Doesn't this assume that the bank is capable of paying the loan plus interest? What if it can't?

Have the banks actually been given an actual payoff deadline, or a repayment schedule? If not, then this is a brilliant move by the government because that means there will NEVER be any realized losses on the TARP (unless a bank actually goes bankrupt), and the program is now officially "profitable" and always will be.

Anyway, I'm just saying that as a whole, you can't calculate the profit/loss on TARP as a whole, until you get a final determination on all the loans. Given how well the banks have managed their money, I won't be satisfied until all the actual money gets paid back.
 

tk149

Diamond Member
Apr 3, 2002
7,253
1
0
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
This is a good start, but until every TARP bank repays or fails, there is no profit. The government is actually losing money because it had to finance these loans and last time I looked, the government owes money.

I see you read LunarRay's 'net' post above and did the math. Can I see it please? And then you may want to comment on the function of government.

I didn't understand his post, and it's been 20 years since I last took an accounting course. Please explain it to me using laymen's terms.

I can guarantee that based on your posts, my definition of the function of government is vastly different from yours.

I appreciate your candor in admitting how off based your understanding is.

I don't have a problem admitting ignorance. Do you? Can I see your math?
 

Moonbeam

Elite Member
Nov 24, 1999
74,575
6,712
126
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
This is a good start, but until every TARP bank repays or fails, there is no profit. The government is actually losing money because it had to finance these loans and last time I looked, the government owes money.

I see you read LunarRay's 'net' post above and did the math. Can I see it please? And then you may want to comment on the function of government.

I didn't understand his post, and it's been 20 years since I last took an accounting course. Please explain it to me using laymen's terms.

I can guarantee that based on your posts, my definition of the function of government is vastly different from yours.

I appreciate your candor in admitting how off based your understanding is.

I don't have a problem admitting ignorance. Do you? Can I see your math?

I didn't mean I appreciate your candor in admitting you didn't understand LunarRay. I meant I appreciated your candor in admitting now off base you must be in having an understanding of government that differs greatly from mine. Think about it. It requires no math.
 

Vic

Elite Member
Jun 12, 2001
50,422
14,337
136
God forbid any 'true' Republican 'capitalist' ever actually read The Wealth of Nations...
 

LunarRay

Diamond Member
Mar 2, 2003
9,993
1
76
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: LunarRay

<snip>

The Accounting bit was to simply indicate that what the company shows as a loss may be the loan interest expense recorded by that company which may be construed as income to the lender on the loans made by the Lender. You don't wait until the entire event is finalized to determine Profit or Loss on a particular 'loan'...

Thank you for clarifying, but I'm still not sure that I understand.

1. You're saying that you can determine profit or loss on each individual TARP "loan," as it pays off or defaults. Okay, that's fine. You can take a snapshot of the entire portfolio right now and say "Look, it's profitable because some of the loans have paid back with interest."

2. Alternatively, you are saying that a bank carries the TARP loan as a liability, and adds the interest on the loan to its liabilities on its books. The government can then carry the interest on the loan as an asset on the government's books. No actual money has changed hands, but you can see how much TARP has in profit or loss each month. Has this been done? Doesn't this assume that the bank is capable of paying the loan plus interest? What if it can't?

Have the banks actually been given an actual payoff deadline, or a repayment schedule? If not, then this is a brilliant move by the government because that means there will NEVER be any realized losses on the TARP (unless a bank actually goes bankrupt), and the program is now officially "profitable" and always will be.

Anyway, I'm just saying that as a whole, you can't calculate the profit/loss on TARP as a whole, until you get a final determination on all the loans. Given how well the banks have managed their money, I won't be satisfied until all the actual money gets paid back.

I'm saying you can cut the cake any way you want or not at all... but each loan stands on its own merit, it seems to me. While the portfolio of loans made are paid off they fall out of that portfolio and become cash which replaces the asset and profit.
On the EDIT... the lender's books the loans are Assets. The inflows are reductions to those assets and become cash.. as above... cr asset loan dr cash and credit income from loans...

Rule of thumb... recognize losses as soon as possible and profit as late as possible is a concervative approach to this... however, once a loan no longer exists shouldn't you at that point gather up all the loans either defalted or paid or partially paid etc.. and state the case...
But again, I'd have given the money free to them to stave off deflation.

 

LunarRay

Diamond Member
Mar 2, 2003
9,993
1
76
I guess the point that I'm really trying to make is that Government is suppose to insure the economic health of country. IF disaster is in front of us.. and it was... does it matter a bit about how much money is made on TARP or any of it... IF we gave 5 trillion away to industry and people to save us from Deflation... which would have cost many times that to get back to health again is it not smart and good Government to do as they did...
Forget getting interest... that is icing on the cake..
 

Phokus

Lifer
Nov 20, 1999
22,994
779
126
Originally posted by: Vic
God forbid any 'true' Republican 'capitalist' ever actually read The Wealth of Nations...

I've always wondered if the copies of that book that republicans have have this part censored out or something:

"The proportion of the expense of house-rent to the whole expense of living is different in the different degrees of fortune. It is perhaps highest in the highest degree, and it diminishes gradually through the inferior degrees, so as in general to be lowest in the lowest degree. The necessaries of life occasion the great expense of the poor. They find it difficult to get food, and the greater part of their little revenue is spent in getting it. The luxuries and vanities of life occasion the principal expense of the rich, and a magnificent house embellishes and sets off to the best advantage all the other luxuries and vanities which they possess. A tax upon house-rents, therefore, would in general fall heaviest upon the rich; and in this sort of inequality there would not, perhaps, be anything very unreasonable. It is not very unreasonable that the rich should contribute to the public expense, not only in proportion to their revenue, but something more than in that proportion." - Adam Smith, The Wealth of Nations Book Five, Chapter II, Article I.

But let me tell you why a flat tax would be a great idea (republicans.txt)
 

tk149

Diamond Member
Apr 3, 2002
7,253
1
0
Originally posted by: LunarRay
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: LunarRay

<snip>

The Accounting bit was to simply indicate that what the company shows as a loss may be the loan interest expense recorded by that company which may be construed as income to the lender on the loans made by the Lender. You don't wait until the entire event is finalized to determine Profit or Loss on a particular 'loan'...

Thank you for clarifying, but I'm still not sure that I understand.

1. You're saying that you can determine profit or loss on each individual TARP "loan," as it pays off or defaults. Okay, that's fine. You can take a snapshot of the entire portfolio right now and say "Look, it's profitable because some of the loans have paid back with interest."

2. Alternatively, you are saying that a bank carries the TARP loan as a liability, and adds the interest on the loan to its liabilities on its books. The government can then carry the interest on the loan as an asset on the government's books. No actual money has changed hands, but you can see how much TARP has in profit or loss each month. Has this been done? Doesn't this assume that the bank is capable of paying the loan plus interest? What if it can't?

Have the banks actually been given an actual payoff deadline, or a repayment schedule? If not, then this is a brilliant move by the government because that means there will NEVER be any realized losses on the TARP (unless a bank actually goes bankrupt), and the program is now officially "profitable" and always will be.

Anyway, I'm just saying that as a whole, you can't calculate the profit/loss on TARP as a whole, until you get a final determination on all the loans. Given how well the banks have managed their money, I won't be satisfied until all the actual money gets paid back.

I'm saying you can cut the cake any way you want or not at all... but each loan stands on its own merit, it seems to me. While the portfolio of loans made are paid off they fall out of that portfolio and become cash which replaces the asset and profit.
On the EDIT... the lender's books the loans are Assets. The inflows are reductions to those assets and become cash.. as above... cr asset loan dr cash and credit income from loans...

Rule of thumb... recognize losses as soon as possible and profit as late as possible is a concervative approach to this... however, once a loan no longer exists shouldn't you at that point gather up all the loans either defalted or paid or partially paid etc.. and state the case...
But again, I'd have given the money free to them to stave off deflation.

Ok, now I understand that you're parsing out each loan separately, and that the government's books shows a reduction in cash but a corresponding increase in an asset (the loan). But why would you do that when TARP covers many banks? TARP, as a whole, may be showing a profit right now, but until a few hundred billion dollars more gets repaid, I'm not going to be shouting "Hallelujah!"

Are we absolutely sure that every TARP bank is going to fully repay their loan? If not, then the government can't count the loan as an asset, or at least not the full value without accounting for the risk involved.

You say that each loan stands on its own merit. Was each TARP loan made on its own merit?

I'm not arguing the merits of TARP, but don't tell me that accounting methods demonstrate that the government hasn't, and won't, lose any money based on just two banks.
 

tk149

Diamond Member
Apr 3, 2002
7,253
1
0
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: Moonbeam
Originally posted by: tk149
This is a good start, but until every TARP bank repays or fails, there is no profit. The government is actually losing money because it had to finance these loans and last time I looked, the government owes money.

I see you read LunarRay's 'net' post above and did the math. Can I see it please? And then you may want to comment on the function of government.

I didn't understand his post, and it's been 20 years since I last took an accounting course. Please explain it to me using laymen's terms.

I can guarantee that based on your posts, my definition of the function of government is vastly different from yours.

I appreciate your candor in admitting how off based your understanding is.

I don't have a problem admitting ignorance. Do you? Can I see your math?

I didn't mean I appreciate your candor in admitting you didn't understand LunarRay. I meant I appreciated your candor in admitting now off base you must be in having an understanding of government that differs greatly from mine. Think about it. It requires no math.

Typical of you. And you still haven't shown your math.
 

LunarRay

Diamond Member
Mar 2, 2003
9,993
1
76
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: LunarRay
Originally posted by: tk149
Originally posted by: LunarRay

<snip>

The Accounting bit was to simply indicate that what the company shows as a loss may be the loan interest expense recorded by that company which may be construed as income to the lender on the loans made by the Lender. You don't wait until the entire event is finalized to determine Profit or Loss on a particular 'loan'...

Thank you for clarifying, but I'm still not sure that I understand.

1. You're saying that you can determine profit or loss on each individual TARP "loan," as it pays off or defaults. Okay, that's fine. You can take a snapshot of the entire portfolio right now and say "Look, it's profitable because some of the loans have paid back with interest."

2. Alternatively, you are saying that a bank carries the TARP loan as a liability, and adds the interest on the loan to its liabilities on its books. The government can then carry the interest on the loan as an asset on the government's books. No actual money has changed hands, but you can see how much TARP has in profit or loss each month. Has this been done? Doesn't this assume that the bank is capable of paying the loan plus interest? What if it can't?

Have the banks actually been given an actual payoff deadline, or a repayment schedule? If not, then this is a brilliant move by the government because that means there will NEVER be any realized losses on the TARP (unless a bank actually goes bankrupt), and the program is now officially "profitable" and always will be.

Anyway, I'm just saying that as a whole, you can't calculate the profit/loss on TARP as a whole, until you get a final determination on all the loans. Given how well the banks have managed their money, I won't be satisfied until all the actual money gets paid back.

I'm saying you can cut the cake any way you want or not at all... but each loan stands on its own merit, it seems to me. While the portfolio of loans made are paid off they fall out of that portfolio and become cash which replaces the asset and profit.
On the EDIT... the lender's books the loans are Assets. The inflows are reductions to those assets and become cash.. as above... cr asset loan dr cash and credit income from loans...

Rule of thumb... recognize losses as soon as possible and profit as late as possible is a Conservative approach to this... however, once a loan no longer exists shouldn't you at that point gather up all the loans either defaulted or paid or partially paid etc.. and state the case...
But again, I'd have given the money free to them to stave off deflation.

OK, now I understand that you're parsing out each loan separately, and that the government's books shows a reduction in cash but a corresponding increase in an asset (the loan). But why would you do that when TARP covers many banks? TARP, as a whole, may be showing a profit right now, but until a few hundred billion dollars more gets repaid, I'm not going to be shouting "Hallelujah!"

Are we absolutely sure that every TARP bank is going to fully repay their loan? If not, then the government can't count the loan as an asset, or at least not the full value without accounting for the risk involved.

You say that each loan stands on its own merit. Was each TARP loan made on its own merit?

I'm not arguing the merits of TARP, but don't tell me that accounting methods demonstrate that the government hasn't, and won't, lose any money based on just two banks.

I'd hope each Tarp action had its own set of conditions and we know of some or most. I guess, and it was designed with some sort of 'profit' involved. I guess the profit is a report card on the decisions made at a dire period of time. Some were easy no brainers while others had more risk attached. I'd expect failure but maybe just maybe the folks figuring it all out did a good job even if there results a net loss... I'd look to the individual loans and see what logic was used that provide the results as they come in... each is a separate event.

You can look at this from the collective if that is the way you analyze it.. I look at each loan and its own situation... Since TARP is simply a program which will some day end its existence the end of the day will come and the results seen... As I keep saying, however, profit in the program is like icing on a cake.. it is the securing of the economy and THAT savings that matter.

 

alchemize

Lifer
Mar 24, 2000
11,486
0
0
So you were saying...

http://blogs.reuters.com/rolfe.../10/08/tarp-deadbeats/

Thirty-three TARP recipients missed a scheduled dividend payment to taxpayers last month, according to the Treasury Department, including 18 banks that missed a payment for the first time.

...

The 33 banks that missed dividend payments in August have received $4.5 billion of TARP money. The biggest is CIT. Previously it paid $44 million of dividends, but with a bankruptcy filing looking likely, Treasury?s $2.3 billion investment seems headed toward zero.
...

According to the latest data from Treasury, 42 banks have paid back some or all of the cash they got from TARP?s Capital Purchase Program, $70.7 billion in total. But more than 600 banks remain in the CPP program. Together, they still owe $134 billion.

And this excludes other TARP bailout programs that are likely to cost billions. The automotive industry owes TARP $80 billion. And AIG owes TARP $69.8 billion. Much of that isn?t coming back.
 

StageLeft

No Lifer
Sep 29, 2000
70,150
5
0
Originally posted by: Phokus
Originally posted by: Vic
God forbid any 'true' Republican 'capitalist' ever actually read The Wealth of Nations...

I've always wondered if the copies of that book that republicans have have this part censored out or something:

"The proportion of the expense of house-rent to the whole expense of living is different in the different degrees of fortune. It is perhaps highest in the highest degree, and it diminishes gradually through the inferior degrees, so as in general to be lowest in the lowest degree. The necessaries of life occasion the great expense of the poor. They find it difficult to get food, and the greater part of their little revenue is spent in getting it. The luxuries and vanities of life occasion the principal expense of the rich, and a magnificent house embellishes and sets off to the best advantage all the other luxuries and vanities which they possess. A tax upon house-rents, therefore, would in general fall heaviest upon the rich; and in this sort of inequality there would not, perhaps, be anything very unreasonable. It is not very unreasonable that the rich should contribute to the public expense, not only in proportion to their revenue, but something more than in that proportion." - Adam Smith, The Wealth of Nations Book Five, Chapter II, Article I.

But let me tell you why a flat tax would be a great idea (republicans.txt)
Despite his accolades it is still the author's opinion that such a tax scheme should be setup, as opposed to something mathematically infallible and beyond debate. I do agree with it, though.

 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: alchemize
So you were saying...

http://blogs.reuters.com/rolfe.../10/08/tarp-deadbeats/

Thirty-three TARP recipients missed a scheduled dividend payment to taxpayers last month, according to the Treasury Department, including 18 banks that missed a payment for the first time.

...

The 33 banks that missed dividend payments in August have received $4.5 billion of TARP money. The biggest is CIT. Previously it paid $44 million of dividends, but with a bankruptcy filing looking likely, Treasury?s $2.3 billion investment seems headed toward zero.
...

According to the latest data from Treasury, 42 banks have paid back some or all of the cash they got from TARP?s Capital Purchase Program, $70.7 billion in total. But more than 600 banks remain in the CPP program. Together, they still owe $134 billion.

And this excludes other TARP bailout programs that are likely to cost billions. The automotive industry owes TARP $80 billion. And AIG owes TARP $69.8 billion. Much of that isn?t coming back.


Heh, those banks represent about .6% of the 700bn TARP funds.

Wow, so horrible.
 

JKing106

Platinum Member
Mar 19, 2009
2,193
0
0
Originally posted by: alphatarget1
If CIT had failed, we would've lost like 2-3 billion dollars in TARP funds.

That's less than the 9 billion taxpayer dollars that went missing off a loading dock in Iraq. That's a deal.
 

alchemize

Lifer
Mar 24, 2000
11,486
0
0
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: alchemize
So you were saying...

http://blogs.reuters.com/rolfe.../10/08/tarp-deadbeats/

Thirty-three TARP recipients missed a scheduled dividend payment to taxpayers last month, according to the Treasury Department, including 18 banks that missed a payment for the first time.

...

The 33 banks that missed dividend payments in August have received $4.5 billion of TARP money. The biggest is CIT. Previously it paid $44 million of dividends, but with a bankruptcy filing looking likely, Treasury?s $2.3 billion investment seems headed toward zero.
...

According to the latest data from Treasury, 42 banks have paid back some or all of the cash they got from TARP?s Capital Purchase Program, $70.7 billion in total. But more than 600 banks remain in the CPP program. Together, they still owe $134 billion.

And this excludes other TARP bailout programs that are likely to cost billions. The automotive industry owes TARP $80 billion. And AIG owes TARP $69.8 billion. Much of that isn?t coming back.


Heh, those banks represent about .6% of the 700bn TARP funds.

Wow, so horrible.
CIT? AIG? Automakers? :roll: