Originally posted by: Vic
Originally posted by: BoberFett
Originally posted by: Vic
The OP is lying. These prime loans he speaks of were not >100% CLTV when originated.
That may very well be, but past value on ANYTHING has nothing to do with current and future value.
I agree. Which is why, when originated, the loans were made based on the then current value of the property.
What's more, FHA doesn't lend to 100%, but (depending on market, etc) to a max of 97%-98%. Fannie would lend to 100%, but only with a 'piggyback' 2nd mortgage at a much higher rate, and with a 1.5%-2% fee charged on top of the 1st mortgage (which the broker/lender usually just packaged inside the interest rate). So the additional risk was factored in. It's not like these borrowers got the same deal as a customer with an 800 credit score and low LTV.
It gets better, as the OP is seemingly unaware of an underwriting concept known as 'risk layering.' What this means is that the Fannie might do a loan for a borrower with a 620 FICO, but not at high LTV. And vice versa. An exception can be made if the borrower is lacking a bit/borderline in one risk criteria, but not if they are lacking in multiple risk criteria.
IOW the OP is being intellectual dishonest. Yes, there are a lot of loans below 650 FICO. And there are a lot of loans at high CLTV. But there are not a lot of loans that are both.