- Dec 7, 1999
- 2,633
- 263
- 126
In a 6 number (i.e. 1-48) lottery type system, I understand that each "draw" is independent of each other. That is, for the first number ... the odds are 1 in 48 of drawing number x.
For the second number, the odds are 1 in 47 of drawing number y
and so forth.
My question is, are the odds exactly the same for drawing 6 random numbers (in any order) i.e. :
3 16 23 25 32 41
as they would if the lottery drew consecutive numbers (in any order)
1 2 3 4 5 6
The draws are independent of each other, but are the odds even higher for "getting" consecutive numbers (drawn in any order) than random numbers?
For the second number, the odds are 1 in 47 of drawing number y
and so forth.
My question is, are the odds exactly the same for drawing 6 random numbers (in any order) i.e. :
3 16 23 25 32 41
as they would if the lottery drew consecutive numbers (in any order)
1 2 3 4 5 6
The draws are independent of each other, but are the odds even higher for "getting" consecutive numbers (drawn in any order) than random numbers?
