Ok...as the lim x approaches 0 for any sin(x)/(x) =1. Is this only true as the lim x approaches 0. For example as the lim x approaches pi/2 it wouldn't still be 1 would it because the lim at pi/2 is defined. I thought it would be 2/pi since it would come out to 1/pi/2...2/pi, but someone told me that no matter what sin(x)/(x)=1. Is this true?