The p-series with p=2 converges to pi^2/6. Can someone please explain me the proof or give me a link to a proof? I'm sure there are thousands of proofs for this equality, but I cannot find any proofs on google (i don't know what to search for).
Thanks.
Note: this is not for homework or any kind of credit. I am asking this question out of curosity.
Clearification: the p series is simply a summation of 1/n^p with respect to n from 1 to infinity. Or simply zeta(p).
SOLVED: this is called the basler problem. Mathworld from wolfram gives three proofs for this.
Thanks.
Note: this is not for homework or any kind of credit. I am asking this question out of curosity.
Clearification: the p series is simply a summation of 1/n^p with respect to n from 1 to infinity. Or simply zeta(p).
SOLVED: this is called the basler problem. Mathworld from wolfram gives three proofs for this.
