For some reason, the explanation given to this problem just, does, not, make, sense!
Here is the problem:
Text
I understand everything up to:
"Gauss's Law tells us tha tsince we enclose no charge, there is no electric field due to the outer shell inside the inner shell." Which makes sense since all the charge is concentrated on the surface of the shell.
However, then it says:
"If there is no electric field, the potential stays the same as we go inwards. Therefore, the potential due to the outer shell at any point inside the outer shell is...."
My question is, why is there that contribution of q2/3a if we are inside the outer shell and there there is no electric field due to the outer shell?
Here is the problem:
Text
I understand everything up to:
"Gauss's Law tells us tha tsince we enclose no charge, there is no electric field due to the outer shell inside the inner shell." Which makes sense since all the charge is concentrated on the surface of the shell.
However, then it says:
"If there is no electric field, the potential stays the same as we go inwards. Therefore, the potential due to the outer shell at any point inside the outer shell is...."
My question is, why is there that contribution of q2/3a if we are inside the outer shell and there there is no electric field due to the outer shell?