woolfe9999
Diamond Member
- Mar 28, 2005
- 7,153
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Contrary to the left's belief, the First Amendment is not solely to protect nude dancing and flag burning. Protecting political speech is the original intent, and in this case the government (at the state level) is actively and preferentially opposing money spent as political free speech with tax money. I could make an argument either way, but I don't think that government should be favoring one candidate's political free speech rights over another candidate's political free speech rights. That might not be banning or censuring a candidate's free speech rights, but it is certainly watering them down - in fact, that's the stated goal of the law, to reduce the effectiveness of one candidate's political free speech by increasing his opponent's political free speech.
In what world does allowing the candidate without private funding greater opportunity for speech "reduce the effectiveness" of the privately funded candidate's speech? Are you saying that speech is "ineffective" because it is opposed? I thought that the concept of a political debate was at the heart of the First Amendment? Instead, what you're saying is, the billionaire or the candidate with billionare backing gets to speak more - that is what the First Amendment is truly about, and a law which does not preclude said billionaire from speaking one iota, but merely allows said billionaire's opponents to same opportunity for speech, that's unconstititional? You're totally upside down on this issue.
No, it doesn't "reduce the effectiveness of one candidates political speech." It merely gives the candidate's opponent more opportunity for speech. It does not control the content of any candidate's speech; it does not ban any candidate's speech; it does not reduce the privately funded candidate's opportunity for speech. I fail to see how this is depriving anyone of First Amendment rights. A robust political debate is, in fact, what the First Amendment is about.
- wolf
